Quiz questions and answers on Agriculture! Highly useful for cracking Pre PG (Ag) Test, JRF, SRS, ARS, NET, SET, Ph.D, ASRB, IRMA, UPSC, NARBARD, Cooperative Bank, P.O, BEd. MANAGE and allied Agricultural Exams!
1. The enzyme glucose – 6 – phosphatase which catalyses the conversion of glucose 6- phosphate to glucose is not found in
a) Liver
b) Muscle
c) Stomach
d) Lungs
Ans. (b)
2. Allosteric activator of glycogen synthase is
a) Glucose
b) Glucose – 6 – Phosphate
c) UTP
d) Glucose – 1 – phosphate
Ans. (b)
3. Action of glycogen synthase is inhibited by
a) Ca++
b) Glucose
c) Mg2+
d) ATP
Ans. (c)
4. The hormone activating the glycogen synthase activity is
a) Insulin
b) Glucagon
c) Adrenal
d) ADH
Ans. (a)
5. Characteristic features of active site are
a) Flexible in nature
b) Site of binding
c) Acidic
d) Both a) and b)
Ans. (d)
6. The hydrogen acceptor used in pentose phosphate pathway is
a) NADPH
b) NADP
c) FAD
d) ADP
Ans. (b)
7. Grain smut of sorghum is externally seed borne disease caused by pathogen:
a) Sphacelotheca reiliana
b) Sphacelotheca crueuta
c) Sphacelotheca sorghi
d) Tolyposprium enrenbergii
Ans. (c)
8. The smut of pearl millet (caused by Tolyposprium peniciariae) is a:
a) Internally seed borne
b) Externally seed borne
c) Soil borne
d) All of these
Ans. (c)
9. The Karnal bunt of wheat is caused by:
a) Neovossia indica
b) Tilletia horrid
c) Urocystis tritici
d) Ustilago tritici
Ans. (a)
10. The effective control of flag smut of wheat (Urocystis tritici) can be done by adopting:
a) Use of resistant varieties
b) Seed treatment
c) Crop rotation
d) All of these
Ans. (d)
11. Black rust or stem rust of wheat is caused by:
a) Puccinia graminis tritici
b) Puccinia striformis
c) Puccinia recondite
d) Melamspora lini
Ans. (a)
12. The yellow rust of wheat is caused by:
a) Puccinia striformis
b) Puucinia recondite
c) P.graminis tritici
d) Puccinia hordei
Ans. (c)
13. Early blight of potato produces:
a) Conidia
b) Telia
c) Uredia
d) Acecia
Ans. (a)
14. For the effective control of early blight of potato, which fungicide is most suitable:
a) Zineb
b) Dithane M-45
c) Blitox-50
d) Difolatan
Ans. (b)
15. Early blight of potato is:
a) Soil borne disease
b) Air borne
c) Seed borne
d) All of these
Ans. (a)
16. Leaf spot or Tikka disease of groundnut is/ are caused by:
a) Cercospora arachidicola
b) Cercospora personatum
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Drechslera graminea
Ans. (c)
17. Most agricultural commodity markets usually function under the regular forces of
a) demand and supply
b) inflation
c) deflation
d) farmer produce increment
Ans. (a)
18. The government of India supports organized marketing of agricultural products through a system of
a) regulated markets
b) local market
c) farmer market
d) permanent market
Ans. (a)
19. Most State Governments and Union Territories have enacted legislations like the Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee Act to provide for regulation of agricultural produce markets for the purpose
a) To achieve an efficient system of buying and selling of agricultural commodities,
b) To increase supply of commodity directly from farmers field
c) To increase the demand of commodities in the market
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
20. At the time of independence there were only around________ regulated markets in India
a) 210
b) 286
c) 320
d) 470
Ans. (b)
21. Presently, there are more than _______________ regulated markets in India
a) 7,500
b) 75000
c) 1,000
d) 300
Ans. (a)
22. Presently, the average reach of a single regulated market is
a) 159 square km
b) 459 square km
c) 859 square km
d) 1259 square km
Ans. (b)
23. In India, Community development projects were launched in:
a) 1955
b) 1952
c) 1967
d) 1947
Ans. (d)
24. In Panchayat Raj system, the responsibility of planning, co-ordination and consolidation of the development programme lies on:
a) Zilla Parishad
b) Panchayat Samiti
c) State development committee
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
25. Integrated Rural Development Programmmes has been conceived:
a) Essentially to develop adult education facilities in the rural areas
b) Essentially as an anti-poverty programme
c) Essentially to develop an anti-hoarding programme
d) Essentially to develop fisheries in the area
Ans. (b)
26. Integrated rural energy system are significant:
a) For supplementing energies available in the rural areas
b) For meeting the energy needs of the dispersed rural population
c) For producing more and more gobar gas for fuel purpose
d) All the above
Ans. (b)
27. Overall responsibility of rural development programmes at district level goes on:
a) District Planning Officer
b) District Panchayat Raj Officer
c) District Collector
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
28. Rural community has:
a) Less dense population
b) More dense population
c) Moderately dense population
d) Nothing can be predicted
Ans. (a)
29. Which of the following is correct about SHGs?
a) It can be all women group
b) It can be all-men group
c) It can be a mixed group
d) All the above are correct
Ans. (d)
30. Which of the following perform better in all the important activities of SHGs?
a) women’s groups
b) all-men group
c) a mixed group
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
31. Which one of the following is the pioneers in the promotion of Self-Help Groups (SHG) in India?
a) Collector
b) Pradhan
c) Rural minister
d) Bank manager
Ans. (b)
32. First SHG was formed in India at
a) Alwar, Rajasthan
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (a)
33. In India, first SHG was formed in the year
a) 1945
b) 1987
c) 1990
d) 2003
Ans. (b)
34. A Self-Help Group is an informal association of poor women belonging to the same village and sharing a common socioeconomic background
a) 10 to 20
b) 70 to 90
c) 100 to 200
d) 50 to 80
Ans. (a)
35. An extension worker while extending scientific knowledge to the farmers, starts with :
a) Picture show
b) Practical demonstrations
c) Asking questions
d) All of the above
Ans. (b)
36. Determination of Extension programme consists of:
a) Collection and analysis of data determination of needs and objectives
b) Definition and finding solutions
c) Identifying the area work
d) Both a and b
Ans. (d)
37. Elements of communication are:
a) Teacher, attention, learner and feedback
b) Message and feedback
c) Source, message, channel, receiver and effect
d) Message, receiver and effect
Ans. (c)
38. Execution of plan assumes that a programme is planned, and a plan of work is:
a) To be thought of
b) To be developed
c) Already developed
d) To be future development
Ans. (c)
39. Extension education is:
a) An educational process
b) Two way channel
c) Change agent
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
40. Extension education is____________ process
a) Only communication
b) only training
c) Teaching and learning
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
41. Extension workers are:
a) Social workers
b) Professional leaders
c) Autocratic leaders
d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
42. Which of the following is correct about Sahiwal?
a) Originally Belonging to the Montgomery district of Present Pakistan
b) Age at first calving – 32 – 36 months
c) Calving interval – 15 months
d) All the above are correct
Ans. (d)
43. Which of the following is not correct about Gir breed?
a) Mainly found in Gir forest areas of South Kathiawar
b) Gir Cows are good Milk – yielder
c) Milk yield – Under village condition: 900 kg and under commercial farms: 1600 kg
d) Mainly found in Coimbatore, Erode, Namakkal, Karur and Dindigul districts of Tamil Nadu
Ans. (d)
44. Which of the following is correct about Umblacherry breeds?
a) Calves are red in colour when born and become grey in colour after 6 months of age
b) Male animals are good for hard work
c) Cows are poor milker with average milk yield of 300 kg/lactation
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
45. Brown Swiss is a native breed of
a) Switzerland
b) India
c) Holland
d) USA
Ans. (a)
46. Holstein Friesian breed is originated in
a) Switzerland
b) India
c) Holland
d) USA
Ans. (c)
47. Jersey is a native breed of
a) British Isles
b) Switzerland
c) India
d) Canada
Ans. (a)
48. Kangayam is a
a) Dairy breed
b) Draught breed
c) Native of Holland
d) None of the above are correct
Ans. (b)
49. Genetic information flows from
a) RNA to DNA
b) DNA to RNA
c) Protein to DNA to RNA
d) Protein to RNA to DNA
Ans. (b)
50. Genetic code is
a) Collection of codon
b) Collection of allele
c) Collection of nucleotide
d) Collection of nucleoside
Ans. (a)
51. Degeneracy of genetic code implies that
a) Specific codon decodes many amino acids
b) Multiple codons must decode the same amino acids
c) No anticodon on tRNA molecule
d) Codons do not code for specific amino acid
Ans. (b)
52. Genetic code is
a) Not universal
b) Non – overlapping
c) Overlapping
d) Ambiguous
Ans. (b)
53. mRNA is complementary to the nucleotide sequence of
a) tRNA
b) Ribosomal RNA
c) Coding strand
d) Template strand
Ans. (c)
54. In DNA replication the enzyme required in the first step is
a) DNA polymerase
b) Unwinding proteins
c) DNA directed polymerase
d) DNA ligase
Ans. (b)
55. The shape of furrow cut by MB plough is:
a) A – shape
b) L – shape
c) P – shape
d) M – shape
Ans. (b)
56. A tractor mounted on rotary tiers are used for:
a) Seedbed preparation
b) Puddling
c) Both a and b
d) Mulching
Ans. (c)
57. What is the main function of ploughing?
a) To improve soil aeration
b) To prevent soil erosion
c) To add fertility to soil
d) All are correct
Ans. (d)
58. The forces acting on MB plough are:
a) Plastic
b) Parasitic
c) Centripetal
d) Centrifugal
Ans. (b)
59. Plough share is made up of:
a) Copper
b) Cast iron
c) Gun metal
d) Aluminium
Ans. (c)
60. Dead furrow is made up of:
a) One-way MB plough
b) Two-way MB plough
c) Fluted roller
d) Doffan
Ans. (a)
61. Dibbler is a:
a) Seed drill
b) Vegetables
c) Harrow
d) Leveller
Ans. (b)
62. Which of the following is not the objective of watershed management?
a) Reduction of organic, inorganic and soil pollution
b) Adequate water supply for domestic, agricultural and industrial needs
c) Demolition of recreation facilities such as picnic and camping sites
d) Recognition of watershed as a unit for development and efficient use of land according to land capabilities
Ans. (c)
63. Which of the following is not the principle of watershed management?
a) Protecting the fertile top soil
b) Minimizing the silting up of the reservoirs and lower fertile lands
c) Protecting vegetative cover throughout the year
d) Ex situ conservation of rain water
Ans. (d)
64. Water resource management is
a) the activity of planning, developing, distributing and managing the optimum use of water resources
b) a sub-set of water cycle management
c) Both a and b are correct
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
65. The crop water need mainly depends on
a) the climate
b) the crop type
c) the growth stage of the crop
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
66. Crop water need (mm/total growing period) for Cabbage crop is
a) 350-500
b) 900-1200
c) 500-800
d) 400-600
Ans. (a)
67. What is an essential element?
a) An element that is present in the soil
b) An element that is present in the plant
c) An element that improves plant growth
d) An element without which a plant will not grow complete it’s life cycle
Ans. (d)
68. Which of the following is not a micro-nutrient
a) Mo
b) B
c) P
d) Cu
Ans. (c)
69. The presence of an element in the plant ash
a) Does not guarantee that it is essential
b) Proves that it is essential
c) Proves that it takes active part in the physiology of the plant
d) Indicates that it occurs in abundance in the soil
Ans. (c)
70. Which of the following essential elements do terrestrial plant take exclusively from the air
a) Ca
b) P
c) Mg
d) C
Ans. (d)
71. Chlorosis usually occurs
a) In strong light
b) Due to excessive respiration
c) In darkness
d) Due to lack of iron or magnesium
Ans. (d)
72. An essential element is one which
a) Increase water holding capacity
b) Is present in the plant ash
c) Is indispensable for the growth and is irreplaceable
d) Is present in air
Ans. (c)
73. Which of the following element is not essential for plant growth?
a) C
b) K
c) Ca
d) Si
Ans. (d)
74. D.P.D. stands for:
a) Diffusion pressure deficit
b) Diffusion pressure demand
c) Daily photosynthetic depression
d) Daily phosphorus demand
Ans. (a)
75. When a cell is fully turgid which of the following will be zero?
a) Diffusion pressure deficit
b) Wall pressure
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Turgor pressure
Ans. (a)
76. Which of the following phenomenon identifies by selective permeability?
a) Diffusion
b) Osmosis
c) Imbibition
d) Plasmolysis
Ans. (a)
77. Which of the following phenomenon occurs in turgid cell due to osmotic pressure?
a) Causes cell elongation
b) Causes opening of stomata
c) Prevents wilting of leaves
d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
78. The real force responsible for the movement of water from one cell to other cell is mainly
a) Root pressure
b) Osmosis
c) D.P.D.
d) Imbibition
Ans. (c)
79. If the cell wall is elastic instead of being rigid and if the cell is put in a medium of sugar solution of higher concentration that in the cell then
a) The cytoplasm will be pulled away from the wall as water moves out
b) The wall will shrink along the cytoplasm
c) Cell shape and size will not change
d) The cell wall will rupture as the cytoplasm shrinks
Ans. (b)
80. Which of the following process occurs in imbibition?
a) Diffusion
b) Capillary action
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
Ans. (c)
81. A cell placed in a strong salt solutions shrink because
a) The cytoplasm will decompose
b) Mineral salts will break the cell wall
c) Salt will enter the cell
d) Water will leave by exosmosis
Ans. (d)
82. Which of the following solution can cause plasmolysis in turgid cell?
a) A hypertonic solution
b) A hypotonic solution
c) An isotonic solution
d) Pure water
Ans. (a)
83. A cell increases in volume if the external medium is
a) Hypotonic
b) Slightly hypertonic
c) isotonic
d) Much more concentrated than the protoplasm of the cell
Ans. (a)
84. Which of the following is responsible for water imbibition in seeds?
a) Osmotic pressure inside the seeds is low
b) Seed coat contains lots of salts
c) The processes of capillarity and adsorption work
d) There are many vacuoles in endosperm
Ans. (c)
85. When plant cells are kept in hypertonic salt solution they get
a) Plasmolysed
b) Lysed
c) Turgid
d) Deplasmolysed
Ans. (a)
86. Which of the following process does not liberate carbon dioxide?
a) Respiration of fats
b) Respiration of organic acids
c) Anaerobic respiration
d) Incomplete oxidation of carbon dioxide
Ans. (d)
87. Two chief functions of leaves are:
a) Transpiration and Respiration
b) Respiration and Digestion
c) Photosynthesis and Respiration
d) Respiration and Transpiration
Ans. (c)
88. Daily requirement of thiamin is
a) 0.1 mg/1,000 Calories
b) 0.5 mg/1,000 Calories
c) 0.3 mg/1,000 Calories
d) 5.0 mg/1,000 Calories
Ans. (b)
89. Vitamins are
a) Accessory food factors
b) Generally synthesized in the body
c) Produced in liver
d) Acidic in nature
Ans. (a)
90. Vitamin A or retinal is a
a) Steroid
b) Polyisoprenoid compound containing a cyclohexenyl ring
c) Benzoquinone derivative
d) 6-Hydroxychromane
Ans. (b)
91. Beta-Carotene, precursor of vitamin A, is oxidatively cleaved by
a) Beta – Carotene dioxygenase
b) Oxygenase
c) Lyases
d) Fumerases
Ans. (a)
92. The CK isoenzymes present in cardiac muscle is
a) BB and MM
b) MM and MB
c) MB only
d) MB and BB
Ans. (b)
93. In acute pancreatitis, the enzyme raised in first five days is
a) Serum amylase
b) Serum phosphatase
c) Lactate dehydrogenase
d) Lipoprotein lipase
Ans. (a)
94. Which of the following is a symptom of acute pancreatitis?
a) Lack of synthesis of zymogen enzymes
b) Continuous release of zymogen enzymes into the gut
c) Premature activation of zymogen enzymes
d) All of the above
Ans. (c)
95. An example of functional plasma enzyme is
a) Lipoprotein lipase
b) Pyruvate
c) Isomerase
d) Malate
Ans. (a)
96. Which of the following is a non – functional plasma enzyme?
a) Urease
b) Phosphatase
c) Amylase
d) Lipase
Ans. (d)
97. The pH optima for salivary analyse is
a) 6.6-6.8
b) 4-5
c) 6-7
d) 3-4
Ans. (a)
98. The pH optima for pancreatic analyse is
a) 5.0
b) 4.5
c) 6.0
d) 8.6
Ans. (d)
99. The pH optima for sucrase is
a) 5-7
b) 7-8
c) 3-4
d) 4-5
Ans. (a)
100. The pH optima for maltase is
a) 6-7
b) 4-5
c) 5.8-6.2
d) 7-8
Ans. (c)
111. The pH optima for lactase is
a) 6-7
b) 5.4-6.0
c) 5-7
d) 2-3
Ans. (b)
112. The substrate for amylase is
a) Fructose
b) Maltose
c) Starch
d) Glucose
Ans. (c)
113. The ion which activates salivary amylase activity is
a) Chloride
b) Calcium
c) Hydrogen
d) Potassium
Ans. (a)
114. The downey mildew disease of pearl millet is primarily a:
a) Seed borne
b) Air borne
c) Soil borne
d) Water borne
Ans. (c)
115. The symptoms of powdery mildew of pea (caused by Erysiphe polygoni) first appears on:
a) Stem
b) Roots
c) Leaves
d) Flowers
Ans. (c)
116. The powdery mildew of wheat is associated with fungi:
a) Erysiphe graminis sp. Tritici
b) E.graminis sp. hordei
c) Erysiphe polygoni
d) None of these
Ans. (a)
117. The disease caused by Leptosphaeria sacchari in sugarcane is:
a) Red rot
b) Black rot
c) Ring spot
d) None of these
Ans. (c)
118. The disease ergot of rye produces sclerotia is caused by:
a) Claviceps purpurea
b) C.fusiformis
c) C.sativae
d) All of these
Ans. (a)
119. The management of ergot of bajra may be possible by adopting:
a) Long crop rotations
b) Keeping seed in 20% salt solution
c) Spray of oxychloride + zineb
d) All of these
Ans. (d)
120. The centre of origin of pigeon peas is most likely___________ from where it traveled to East Africa
(a) Canada
(b) Asia
(c) China
(d) India
Ans. (b)