Interview Questions on Agriculture for Field Officers (With Answers)!
1. The cultivation per capita land availability world-wide is about ________ ha
(A) 0.3
(B) 0.38
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.8
Ans. A
2. The cultivation per capita land availability in India is about _________ ha
(A) 0.3
(B) 3.8
(C) 0.15
(D) 0.5
Ans. C
3. Norman E. Borlaug got Nobel Prize in the Field of _______
(A) Agriculture
(B) Medicine
(C) Economic
(D) Peace
Ans. D
4. ‘Farmer first’ concept was proposed by ________
(A) Paul Leagans
(B) Neils Rolling
(C) Robert
(D) Indira Gandhi
Ans. C
5. In how many classes did Krishnan and Singh (1972) divided the climate on the basis of Moisture deficit index?
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
Ans. B
6. The term Meteorology is derived from ________
(A) Latin word
(B) Greek word
(C) Gentian word
(D) Arabic word
Ans. B
7. The Climatology is a __________
(A) Greek word
(B) Latin word
(C) Spanish
(D) German
Ans. A
8. International Meteorological (IMO) was established during _________
(A) 1898
(B) 1928
(C) 1973
(D) 1958
Ans. C
9. The Division of Agriculture Meteorology at Pune was started in __________
(A) 1912
(B) 1922
(C) 1932
(D) 1942
Ans. C
10. Weather pertains to a __________
(A) Long period of time
(B) Short duration
(C) Medium duration
(D) None
Ans. B
11. During which year the Fruit Product Order Act was implemented
(A) 1988
(B) 1977
(C) 1966
(D) 1955
Ans. D
12. Which pigment triggers seed germination
(A) Crytochrome
(B) Carotene
(C) Phytochrome
(D) Cytochrome
Ans. C
13. Bt – gene is used to develop resistance against _____ insects
(A) Lepidoptera
(B) Homoptera
(C) Coleoptera
(D) Diptera
Ans. A
14. Sea Cucumber is a _____
(A) Vegetable
(B) Flower
(C) Fruit
(D) Animal
Ans. D
15. Directorate of Plant Protection Quarantine and Storage (DPPQS) is located at _____
(A) Faridabad
(B) Hyderabad
(C) New Delhi
(D) Chennai
Ans. A
16. Term heterosis was coined by _____
(A) Dc Vries
(B) Hugens
(C) Shull
(D) Mendel
Ans. C
17. Negative heterosis is used for the trait
(A) Fruit number
(B) Days of maturity
(C) Total yield
(D) Recovery ratio
Ans. B
18. Journal “Vegetable Science” is published from _____
(A) New Delhi
(B) Varanasi
(C) Bangalore
(D) Hyderabad
Ans. B
19. Generally in vegetable crops, loss due to weeds is around
(A) 10-15%
(B) 15-20%
(C) 25-30%
(D) 35-40%
Ans. D
20. First company to supply vegetable seeds in India
(A) Pochas
(B) Sutton & Sons
(C) IAHS
(D) MAHYCO
Ans. B
21. In a karyotype representation, which of the following chromosome is placed at the extreme right
(A) Largest chromosome
(B) Y chromosome
(C) Smallest chromosome
(D) X chromosome
Ans. C
22. The one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis was originally postulated by _____
(A) Watson and Crick
(B) Beadle and Tatum
(C) Bateson
(D) Shull
Ans. B
23. Loss of chromosome segment is known as _____
(A) Deletion
(B) Duplication
(C) Addition
(D) Inversion
Ans. A
24. Which of the following produces the pseudo-dominance
(A) Inversion
(B) Deletion
(C) Translocation
(D) Duplication
Ans. B
25. In Patau’s syndrome, which of the following chromosomes is involved _____
(A) 21
(B) 16
(C) 13
(D) 18
Ans. C
26. Turner’s syndrome is associated with which of the following
(A) X chromosome
(B) Y chromosome
(C) An autosome
(D) Both X and Y chromosome
Ans. D
27. Who is known as “father of genetics”
(A) Darwin
(B) Borlaug
(C) Swaminathan
(D) Mendel
Ans. D
28. Colchicine is extracted from which of the following
(A) Allium cepa
(B) Triticum aestivum
(C) Colchicum autumnale
(D) Rosa indica
Ans. C
29. Which of the following aqueous solutions of colchicine is usually applied for chromosome doubling
(A) 0.05%
(B) 0.1%
(C) 0.2%
(D) 0.5%
Ans. C
30. Colchicine disturbs which of the following
(A) DNA synthesis
(B) Spindle fibre formation
(C) Synapsis
(D) Chromosome condensation
Ans. B
31. The C:N ratio of cultivated soil
(A) 5:1
(B) 20:1
(C) 8-15:1
(D) 5-20:1
Ans. C
32. Organic carbon present in organic matter
(A) 48%
(B) 58%
(C) 68%
(D) 38%
Ans. B
33. Which soil enzyme works under the breakdown of urea?
(A) Protease
(B) Cellulase
(C) Urease
(D) Amylase
Ans. C
34. C:N ratio of soil is > 30:1 which process occur
(A) Mineralization
(B) Immobilization
(C) Podzolization
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
35. The process of changing organic to inorganic form is called _____
(A) Mineralization
(B) Immobilization
(C) Podzolization
(D) Laterization
Ans. A
36. Particle size of silt according to ISSS/IUSS
(A) 0.05mm
(B) 0.5 mm
(C) 0.02 mm
(D) 0.2 mm
Ans. C
37. A soil has at least 40% clay and < 40% silt is known as _____
(A) Sandy clay
(B) Silty clay
(C) Clay
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
38. Relative proportion of sand, silt and clay is called _____
(A) Soil texture
(B) Soil structure
(C) Aggregation
(D) Peds
Ans. A
39. Which soil structure found in arid and semi-arid region
(A) Blocky
(B) Prismatic
(C) Spheroidal
(D) Platy
Ans. B
40. Soil strength is measured by ________
(A) Infiltrometer
(B) Penetrometer
(C) Tensiometer
(D) Barometer
Ans. B
41. Insects feeding on plants of several genera within a family are called _____
(A) Monophagous
(B) Polyphagous
(C) Oligophagous
(D) Phytophagous
Ans. C
42. Factor on which penetration of insecticide through insect cuticle does not depend:
(A) Thickness of cuticle
(B) Components of cuticle
(C) Chemical nature of cuticle
(D) Nature of carriers and solvents
Ans. A
43. Insect pathogenic viruses belong to the Family:
(A) Bacillaceae
(B) Aphelinidae
(C) Galumnidae
(D) Baculoviridae
Ans. D
44. Period between two moults is known as ________
(A) Instar
(B) Larval period
(C) Stadium
(D) Incubation period
Ans. C
45. Steps involved in classical biological control are:
(A) Conservation and encouragement of indigenous natural enemies
(B) Augmentation
(C) Importation of exotic natural enemies
(D) All of these
Ans. D
46. Hexudecenal is sex pheromone of _____
(A) Heliothis armigera
(B) Trichoplusia nigra
(C) Spodoptera litura
(D) None of these
Ans. A
47. Snow fleas are found in the order:
(A) Stresiptera
(B) Collembola
(C) Siphonaptera
(D) Dermaptera
Ans. B
48. Bacillus thuringiensis was reported by Berliner from:
(A) Tribolium
(B) Ephestia
(C) Heliothis
(D) Spodoptera
Ans. B
49. Berlese theory was proposed to explain the origin of _____
(A) Egg stage
(B) Pupal stage
(C) Larval stage
(D) Adult stage
Ans. B
50. Basic unit of Classification is known as ________
(A) Species
(B) Family
(C) Genus
(D) Order
Ans. A
51. The small tubular thread like filaments of the fungi is known as hyphae. These hyphae form long filamentous networks which are called as ______
(A) Thallas
(B) Mycellium (Mycelia)
(C) Conidiophore
(D) Spore
Ans. B
52. Which of the following is/are asexual spore/s of fungi?
(A) Conidia
(B) Chlamydospores
(C) Sporangiospores
(D) Both A and C
Ans. D
53. Which of the following is/are sexual spore/s of fungi?
(A) Oospores
(B) Zygospores
(C) Ascospores
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
54. Basidiospores are _____
(A) Sexual spores
(B) Asexual spores
(C) Mycellium modifications
(D) Parasexual spore
Ans. A
55. Reproduction in fungi may possible through _____
(A) Sexual spores
(B) Asexual spores
(C) Parasexual spore
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
56. Which of the following is a spore?
(A) Zoospore – Pythium, Phytophthora
(B) Chlamydospore – Fusarium
(C) Sclerotium – Sclerotium and Rhizoctonia
(D) Rhizomorph – Armillaria mellea
Ans. A
57. Body of a fungus is called as _____
(A) Hyphae
(B) Mycelium
(C) Thallus
(D) Conidiophore
Ans. C
(A) Mastigomycotina (Oomycetes)
(B) Zygomycotina (Rhizopus Mucor)
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
59. Which is/are the mycelium modification of fungi
(A) Rhizomorph (Armillaria)
(B) Sclerotia (Sclerotium, Cleviceps)
(C) Stroma (Cercospora)
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
60. Structures like Rhizoids, Perithecium, Haustoria, Appressorium and Traps are
(A) Spore
(B) Mycelium modifications
(C) Sexual spore
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
61. The small tubular thread like filaments of the fungi is known as hyphae. These hyphae form long filamentous networks which are called as ______
(A) Thallas
(B) Mycellium (Mycelia)
(C) Conidiophore
(D) Spore
Ans. B
62. Which of the following is/are asexual spore/s of fungi?
(A) Conidia
(B) Chlamydospores
(C) Sporangiospores
(D) Both A and C
Ans. D
63. Which of the following is/are sexual spore/s of fungi?
(A) Oospores
(B) Zygospores
(C) Ascospores
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
64. Basidiospores are _____
(A) Sexual spores
(B) Asexual spores
(C) Mycellium modifications
(D) Parasexual spore
Ans. A
65. Reproduction in fungi may possible through _____
(A) Sexual spores
(B) Asexual spores
(C) Parasexual spore
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
66. Which of the following is a spore?
(A) Zoospore – Pythium, Phytophthora
(B) Chlamydospore – Fusarium
(C) Sclerotium – Sclerotium and Rhizoctonia
(D) Rhizomorph – Armillaria mellea
Ans. A
67. Body of a fungus is called as _____
(A) Hyphae
(B) Mycelium
(C) Thallus
(D) Conidiophore
Ans. C
(A) Mastigomycotina (Oomycetes)
(B) Zygomycotina (Rhizopus Mucor)
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
69. Which is/are the mycelium modification of fungi
(A) Rhizomorph (Armillaria)
(B) Sclerotia (Sclerotium, Cleviceps)
(C) Stroma (Cercospora)
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
70. Structures like Rhizoids, Perithecium, Haustoria, Appressorium and Traps are
(A) Spore
(B) Mycelium modifications
(C) Sexual spore
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
71. Which is germination stimulatory substance
(A) Thioura
(B) KNO3
(C) Bothe A and B
(D) K2SO4
Ans. C
72. Cereals seed rich in _______
(A) Glutelins and Prolamins
(B) Globulins
(C) Albumins
(D) Glysin
Ans. A
73. Legume seeds are rich in _________
(A) Globulins
(B) Glysin
(C) Trypsin
(D) Glutamin
Ans. A
74. Chemically pure water have ______ water potential
(A) -0.4 MPa
(B) -0.5 MPa
(C) Zero
(D) -0.7 MPa
Ans. C
75. The highest osmotic pressure in ______
(A) Hydrophyte
(B) Mesophyte
(C) Halophyte
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
76. The value of diffusion pressure deficit of a cell is _______
(A) OP + TP
(B) OP + PP
(C) OP – TP
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
77. The highest imbibing capacity in ______
(A) Lipid
(B) Cellulose
(C) Carbohydrate
(D) Fat
Ans. C
78. Water logged soil is ______
(A) Physically dry
(B) Physiologically dry
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
79. Which water is available to plant?
(A) Gravitational water
(B) Capillary water
(C) Hygroscopic water
(D) Both A and C
Ans. B
80. Essential element for Auxin/IAA synthesis is ______
(A) Zn
(B) Ca
(C) Fe
(D) B
Ans. A
81. Examining the degree of correlation between different explanatory variables in a linear regression model is a process of ________
(A) Autocorrelation
(B) Heteroscedasticity
(C) Simultaneous equation method
(D) Multicolinearity
Ans. D
82. Mathematical statistics deals with the model developed on the basis of ________
(A) Time series data
(B) Secondary data
(C) Cross section data
(D) Experimental data
Ans. D
83. The problem of structural change may occur generally in _______
(A) Cross Section data
(B) Time series data
(C) Secondary data
(D) Experimental data
Ans. B
84. The cost incurred by a farmer for pumping irrigation water is a _______
(A) Fixed cost
(B) Marginal cost
(C) Variable cost
(D) Average cost
Ans. B
85. Which of the following is correct _________
(A) Nominal GDP never equal real GDP
(B) Nominal GDP equals real GDP in all years but the base year
(C) Nominal GDP always equal real GDP
(D) Nominal GDP equals real GDP in the base year
Ans. D
86. In relationship between TP and MP, which one is not true?
(A) When TP increases, MP is positive
(B) When TP is constant, MP is Zero
(C) When TP decreases MP is negative
(D) When TP is maximum, MP is Maximum
Ans. D
87. Aggregate measure of support refers to ______
(A) Taxation
(B) Subsidy
(C) Tariff
(D) Price
Ans. B
88. Which one of the following is “Cost-push Inflation?”
(A) Increased consumption expenditure
(B) Reduction in taxation
(C) Increase in demand
(D) Increase in wages and salaries
Ans. D
89. Data collection at one point of time is called _______
(A) Cross section data
(B) Time series data
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
90. The IRR is defined at a discount rate for which NPV is _______
(A) Greater than one
(B) Equal to zero
(C) Less than one
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
91. Art of communication is ________
(A) Listening
(B) Saying
(C) Seeing
(D) Treatment
Ans. A
92. Homogenous learner occurs in _________
(A) Adult education
(B) Formal education
(C) Non formal education
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
93. Effective motivation is __________
(A) Extrinsic motivation
(B) Intrinsic motivation
(C) Negative motivation
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
94. The process by which an individual, through one’s own efforts and abilities change the behavior
(A) Teaching
(B) Learning
(C) Innovation
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
95. Desirable change in human behavior (knowledge, attitude, skill) is __________
(A) Education
(B) Communication
(C) Innovation
(D) Management
Ans. A
96. High yielding variety programme (HYVP) was launched in _______
(A) 1866
(B) 1966
(C) 1989
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
97. In PRA ‘A’ stands for ______
(A) Agricultural
(B) Assessment
(C) Appraisal
(D) Advertisement
Ans. C
98. In CPM ‘P’ stands for ______
(A) Participatory
(B) Political
(C) Punishment
(D) Path
Ans. D
99. Gurgaon experiment programme started in 1920, which is started by __________
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) F.L. Brayne
(C) Ravindra Nath Tagore
(D) Vinoba Bhave
Ans. B
100. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP), started in which year
(A) 1972-73
(B) 1978-79
(C) 1982-83
(D) 1989-90
Ans. B
101. Geometric mean can be used to find out
(A) Population growth
(B) Growth rate of GNP
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
102. Sum of the deviation about mean is ______
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) One
Ans. A
103. Sum of the absolute deviation about median is _________
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) One
Ans. C
104. Sum of the square deviation about mean is _________
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) One
Ans. B
105. The point of intersection of two cumulative frequency curve provides
(A) Mean
(B) Mode
(C) Median
(D) First quartile
Ans. C
106. Which measure of dispersion is known as best measure of dispersion?
(A) S.D.
(B) Variance
(C) Range
(D) C.V.
Ans. A
107. Formula for C.V. is _________
(A) (S.D./Mean) x 100
(B) (Mean/S.D.) x 100
(C) (Mean x S.D.)/100
(D) 100/(Mean x S.D.)
Ans. A
108. For comparison of two different series, the best measure of dispersion
(A) Range
(B) S.D.
(C) Mean Deviation
(D) C.V.
Ans. D
109. For a Positively skewed distribution, the correct inequality is _________
(A) Mean > Median > mode
(B) Mean < Median < mode
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
110. For a Negatively skewed distribution, the correct inequality is _______
(A) Mean > Median > mode
(B) Mean < Median < mode
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
111. Biggest CO2 sink is ______
(A) Tropical forest
(B) Tropical Rain forest
(C) Tropical moist forest
(D) Tropical Dry forest
Ans. B
112. Teak is naturally found in ________
(A) Tropical deciduous forest
(B) Tropical Rain forest
(C) Tropical evergreen forest
(D) All of these
Ans. B
113. Sal flowering period is __________
(A) June-August
(B) November-December
(C) February-March
(D) March-April
Ans. C
114. Champion and Seth classified the Indian forest in major groups
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans. D
115. Generally bamboo flowers once in __________
(A) 10-25 year
(B) 25-40 year
(C) 40-45 year
(D) 45-50 year
Ans. B
116. Which toxin was contain in Subabul
(A) Mimosene
(B) Azadirachta
(C) Morine
(D) All of these
Ans. A
117. Populus deltoises belongs to family
(A) Poacea
(B) Fabacea
(C) Malvacea
(D) Salicacea
Ans. D
118. Biltmore stick is used to measure
(A) Height
(B) Increment
(C) Diameter
(D) All of these
Ans. C
119. The instrument used to determine the age of tree is __________
(A) Callipers
(B) Presslers increment borer
(C) Tape
(D) Ravi multi-meter
Ans. B
120. Diameter measurement are taken in India at meter from ground level
(A) 1.37 m
(B) 1.25 m
(C) 1.30 m
(D) 1.50 m
Ans. B
121. The size of the virulent plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is _________
(A) 40-80 kb
(B) 140-235 kb
(C) 80-120 kb
(D) > 235 kb
Ans. B
122. Which technique is used to introduce genes into dicots?
(A) Electroporation
(B) Microinjection
(C) Particle acceleration
(D) Ti plasmid infection
Ans. D
123. Although the Ti plasmid has revolutionized plant genetic engineering, one limitation of its use is that it _________
(A) Cannot infect broadleaf plants
(B) Cannot transmit prokaryotic genes
(C) Cannot be used on fruit-bearing plants
(D) Does not infect cereal plants such as corn and rice
Ans. D
124. Which of these require cDNA
(A) 454 sequencing
(B) Expressed sequence tags (ESTs)
(C) The Sanger method
(D) Two of the above
Ans. B
125. Which of the following amino acid is known as half-cystine residue
(A) Cysteine
(B) Valine
(C) Isoleucine
(D) Histidine
Ans. A
126. What is the heaviest of the twenty amino acids?
(A) Phenylalanine
(B) Tyrosine
(C) Tryptophan
(D) Histidine
Ans. C
127. Histones have an abundance of which of the following amino acids
(A) Lysine and Arginine
(B) Glycine and Glutamine
(C) Alanine and Glutamine
(D) Arginine and Glutamine
Ans. A
128. Which of the following amino acids can interact with the DNA or RNA nucleotide bases via hydrogen bonding
(A) Asn and Gln
(B) Lys and Leu
(C) Cys and Met
(D) Ile and Val
Ans. A
129. Protein fluorescence arises primarily from which residue
(A) Arginine
(B) Tyrosine
(C) Tryptophan
(D) Phenylalanine
Ans. C
130. Which of the following is not an application of genetic engineering in plants
(A) Nitrogen fixation
(B) Resistance to glyphosate
(C) DNA vaccines
(D) Production of insecticidal proteins in plants
Ans. C
131. In the order of abundance which is the commonest genera of actinomyctes in soil
(A) Streptomyces
(B) Nocardia
(C) Micromonas
(D) Actinoplanes
Ans. A
132. The percentage of ______ in the total microbial population increases with the depth of soil
(A) Bactria
(B) Virus
(C) Fungi
(D) Actinomycetes
Ans. D
133. _________ are intolerant to acidity
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungi
(C) Actinomycetes
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
134. Viruses attack
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungi
(C) Actinomycetes
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
135. Bactria responsible for denitrification is/are ______
(A) Pseudomonas
(B) Thiobacillus
(C) Bacillus
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
136. Ni Nitrite oxidizing bacteria are ______
(A) Nitrobacter
(B) Nitrospina
(C) Nitrococcus
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
137. Ammonia oxidizing bacteria are _____
(A) Nitrosomonas
(B) Nirosococcus
(C) Nirosolobus
(D) Nitrosovibrio
(E) All of the above
Ans. E
138. Microbial community in area of low PH is dominated by ________
(A) Actinomycetes
(B) Protozoa
(C) Fungi
(D) Bacteria
Ans. C
(A) Consists of partially decomposed organic matter
(B) Dominant food reservoir
(C) Also called fat of the land
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
140. The order of microbial population in soil
(A) Bacteria > Actinomycetes > Fungi > Algae > Protozoa
(B) Actinomycetes > Bacteria > Fungi > Protozoa > Algae
(C) Bacteria > Protozoa > Fungi > Actinomycetes > Algae
(D) Bacteria > Fungi > Actinomycetes > Algae > Protozoa
Ans. A
141. Diesel engine having specific fuel consumption in kg/bhp/hour
(A) 0.20
(B) 0.29
(C) 0.15
(D) 0.80
Ans. A
142. Stroke-bore ratio of tractor engine is _______
(A) 1
(B) 1.45
(C) 1.25
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
143. Carburetor engine having specific fuel consumption
(A) 0.2 kg/bhp/hour
(B) Both A and C
(C) 0.29 kg/bhp/hour
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
144. In cylinder total number of rings on piston, varies between
(A) 3 to 5
(B) 5 to 7
(C) 3 to 7
(D) Both A and B
Ans. C
145. In 4-stroke engine the inlet and exhaust valves remains closed for about
(A) 30° from TDC
(B) 30° from BDC
(C) 20° to 25° after BDC
(D) 225° of crank angle
Ans. D
146. The process of removal of burnt gases are called _______
(A) Smoking
(B) Fogging
(C) Cooling
(D) Scavenging
Ans. D
147. H.S.D. oil having specific gravity
(A) 0.920
(B) 0.820
(C) 0.730
(D) 0.827
Ans. B
148. Specific gravity of petrol is given by ______
(A) 0.920
(B) 0.820
(C) 0.730
(D) 0.827
Ans. C
149. Knocking characteristics of fuel is judged by ______
(A) Octane number
(B) Both A and C
(C) Cetane number
(D) None of them
Ans. B
150. Volatility of fuel affects the ______
(A) Ease of start of engine
(B) Fuels calorific value
(C) Engine speed
(D) Both B and C
Ans. A
151. The time required for the runoff water to flow from the most remote point of the watershed area to the outlet
(A) Time of drainage
(B) Time of concentration
(C) Time of precipitation
(D) Time of saturation
Ans. B
152. The design of diversion ditches for gully control is based on the return period of _________
(A) 5-10 years
(B) 50 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 100 years
Ans. A
153. The purpose of cutoff walls in drop structure is to __________
(A) Support gully walls
(B) Dissipate kinetic energy of flow
(C) Spill the flow away
(D) Provide strength against sliding
Ans. B
154. Initiation of soil movement in wind erosion take place under
(A) Suspension
(B) Saltation and surface creep
(C) Bed load movement
(D) Both A and B
Ans. A
155. Spattering of small soil particles caused by raindrop impact on the wet soil is called ________
(A) Inter rill erosion
(B) Rill erosion
(C) Chemical energy
(D) All are correct
Ans. A
156. In splash erosion the rain drop energy act is the form of __________
(A) Kinetic energy
(B) Chemical energy
(C) Potential energy
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
157. Kinetic energy of rain drop depend on __________
(A) Terminal velocity of raindrop
(B) Drop diameter
(C) Rainfall intensity
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
158. Length of the surveyor’s chain is _________
(A) 33 ft
(B) 66 ft
(C) 100 ft
(D) 150 ft
Ans. B
159. Wind erosion is common in ________
(A) Humid zones
(B) Arid zones
(C) Arid and semi-arid zones
(D) Arid and Humid zones
Ans. C
160. Wind erosion is more in ______
(A) Cohesive soil
(B) Non cohesive soil
(C) Rocky soil
(D) All of the above
Ans. B