Compilation of 150+ Interview questions for an Agricultural Engineer! This article will also help you to crack Pre PG (Ag) Test, JRF, SRS, ARS, NET, SET, Ph.D, ASRB, IRMA, UPSC, NARBARD, Cooperative Bank, P.O, BEd. MANAGE and allied Agricultural Exam.
1. Which of the following is a mineral lubricants?
(a) Crude petroleum
(b) Cotton seed oil
(c) Olive oil
(d) Linseed oil
(e) Castor oil
Ans: a
2. Which of the following is not a part of surveying general class?
(a) Geodetic surveying
(b) Plane surveying
(c) Quarrying
(d) All
Ans: c
3. Which of the following is called trigonometrical surveying?
(a) Geodetic surveying
(b) Plane surveying
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: a
4. Surveying is to determine the precise positions on the surface of the earth of a system of widely distant points and the dimensions of areas
(a) Geodetic surveying
(b) Plane surveying
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: a
5. Surveys normally carried out for the location and construction of roads, canals and, buildings
(a) Geodetic surveying
(b) Plane surveying
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: b
6. Which of the following is not a part of surveys classification based upon the nature of the field of survey?
(a) Land surveys
(b) Marine or navigation surveys
(c) Astronomical surveys
(d) Archaeological surveys
Ans: d
7. Which of the following is not a part of Surveys Classification based upon the object of survey?
(a) Geological surveys
(b) Mine surveys
(c) Military surveys
(d) Marine or navigation surveys
Ans: d
8. Which of the following is not a part of classification based upon the methods employed in survey?
(a) Triangulation surveys
(b) Traverse surveys
(c) Geological surveys
(d) All
Ans: c
9. Contour farming employs
(a) Cultivation along the slope
(b) Cultivation across the slope
(c) Cultivation on more than 20% slope
(d) Deep water cultivation
Ans: b
10. Contour cultivation alone is sufficient in controlling erosion up to slope of
(a) <2%
(b) <10%
(c) <20%
(d) <33%
Ans: a
11. Contour bunding is recommended in area with rainfall
(a) <600mm
(b) 600 to 1000mm
(c) 1170mm
(d) 1000 to 1500mm
Ans: a
12. Contour bunding can be practiced in area with
(a) Rainfall <600 mm and soil with good permeability
(b) 600 to 1000 mm and soil with poor permeability
(c) Rainfall >600 mm and soil with poor permeability
(d) None of the above
Ans: a
13. Contour bunding is recommended for slope range of
(a) 2 to 6%
(b) 6 to 20%
(c) 20 to 33%
(d) >33%
Ans: a
14. Type of bunding recommended for the area having > 600 mm rain fall and relatively less permeable soil
(a) Contour bunding
(b) Graded bunding
(c) Bund along the slope
(d) No bunding
Ans: b
15. Bench terracing is recommended at slope
(a) 8 to 33%
(b) >33%
(c) 33 to 50%
(d) >100%
Ans: a
16. Agriculture is an important sector of Indian economy as it contributes about__________ % to the total GDP
(a) 22 percent
(b) 12 percent
(c) 17 percent
(d) 32 percent
Ans. (c)
17. Agriculture is an important sector of Indian economy as it provides employment to over __________% of the population.
(a) 95 percent
(b) 56 percent
(c) 60 percent
(d) 22 percent
Ans. (c)
18. Which of the following is largest producer of mango in world?
(a) China
(b) Nepal
(c) Pakistan
(d) India
Ans. (d)
19. Which of the following is largest producer of banana in the world?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Brazil
(d) Canada
Ans. (b)
20. Which of the following is the largest producer of coconut in world?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Japan
(d) Australia
Ans. (b)
21. Which of the following is the second largest producer and exporter of tea in the world?
(a) China
(b) Bhutan
(c) Pakistan
(d) India
Ans. (d)
22. Which of the following soil and water conservation measures is for non-arable land?
(a) Contour bunding
(b) Leveling
(c) Graded bunding
(d) Check dam
Ans: d
23. Optimum date of sowing of wheat depends on
(a) Type of variety
(b) Weather
(c) Soil and irrigation
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
24. Most appropriate time of sowing of wheat is when the daily ambient temperature drops to
(a) 40-42 °C
(b) 20-22 °C
(c) 5-12 °C
(d) 30-45 °C
Ans. (b)
25. Optimum time of sowing of wheat in Northern plains is
(a) Second fortnight of November
(b) First week of September
(c) Third week of January
(d) Second week of December
Ans. (a)
26. Last Dates up to sowing of wheat would be economical in India are
(a) Up to 25th December – in North-West plain Zone
(b) Up to 10th December – in North-East plain & Central Zone
(c) Up to 30th November – in peninsular Zone
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
27. The dwarf wheat’s should be sown only at
(a) 5-6 cm depth as they have shorter coleoptiles
(b) 11-15 cm depth as they have shorter coleoptiles
(c) 9-15 cm depth as they have shorter coleoptiles
(d) 15-16 cm depth as they have shorter coleoptiles
Ans. (a)
28. Organic agriculture is a unique production management system which promotes and enhances
a) agro – ecosystem health, including biodiversity
b) biological cycles
c) soil biological activity
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
29. Organic farming accomplished by using
a) on-farm agronomic,
b) biological and mechanical methods
c) all synthetic off-farm inputs”.
d) Both a and b
Ans. (d)
30. Which of the following is are the key characteristics of organic farming
a) Protecting the long term fertility of soils by maintaining organic matter levels, encouraging soil biological activity, and careful mechanical intervention
b) Providing crop nutrients indirectly using relatively insoluble nutrient sources which are made available to the plant by the action of soil micro-organisms
c) Nitrogen self-sufficiency through the use of legumes and biological nitrogen fixation, as well as effective recycling of organic materials including crop residues and livestock manures
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
31. Which of the following is/are the key characteristics of organic farming?
a) The extensive management of livestock, paying full regard to their evolutionary adaptations, behavioural needs and animal welfare issues with respect to nutrition, housing, health, breeding and rearing
b) Careful attention to the impact of the farming system on the wider environment and the conservation of wildlife and natural habitats
c) Reducing the yield by decreasing the use of chemical fertilizer
d) Weed, disease and pest control relying primarily on crop rotations, natural predators, diversity, organic manuring, resistant varieties and limited (preferably minimal) thermal, biological and chemical intervention
Ans. (c)
32. Which of the following is / are the principles of organic agriculture
a) Principle of health
b) Principle of ecology
c) Principle of fairness
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
33. The major factor for the successo of Mendel was:
a) Qualitative analysis of data
b) Observation of distinct inherited traits
c) His knowledge of biology
d) Consideration of one character at one time.
Ans. (c)
34. Multiple alleles control inheritance of
a) Goiter disease
b) Colour blindness
c) Sickle cell anaemia
d) Blood groups.
Ans. (d)
35. A man of A-blood group marries women of AB blood group. Which type of progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous A?
a) AB and O
b) A and O
c) O
d) B.
Ans. (d)
36. An organism with two identical alleles is
a) Twins
b) Dihybrids
c) Heterozygous
d) Homozygous.
Ans. (d)
37. Which type of soil erosion is more in Uttar Pradesh?
a) Air erosion
b) Water erosion
c) Chemical erosion
d) Erosion by man
Ans. (b)
38. A horizon of the soil is also designated as:
a) Alluviated horizon
b) Illuviated horizon
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
39. Crop Logging is a method of:
a) Soil fertility valuation
b) Plant analysis for accessing requirement of nutrients for crop production
c) Accessing crop damage
d) Testing suitability of fertilizers
Ans. (a)
40. A pH value of 6.0 indicates that the soil reaction is:
a) Acidic
b) Alkaline
c) Neutral
d) Highly alkaline
Ans. (a)
41. A soil absorbs about____________ of incoming solar radiation.
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Ans. (b)
42. A soil which have less than 8.5, ESP less than 15 and EC more than 4 mmhos/cm at 25°C is called:
a) Saline soil
b) Alkaline soil
c) Saline-alkali soil
d) None of these
Ans. (b)
43. Which of the following ions are affected by gibberellins and is also involved in signal transduction?
a) H+
b) Ca2+
c) Na+
d) Mg2+
Ans. (b)
44. Pinching the top off a plant to create fuller growth involves which of the following hormones?
a) Auxins
b) Ethylene
c) Gibberellins
d) Cytokinins
Ans. (a)
45. Which of the following pertain to movement of plants?
a) Seismonastic movements
b) Sleep movements
c) Phototropism
d) All of these are correct
Ans. (d)
46. The general sequence by which a plant responds to stimuli is
a) chloroplast-vascular bundle-sap.
b) reception-transduction-response.
c) sensory nerve-nterneuron-motor nerve.
d) input-reflex-output.
Ans. (b)
47. Which of these terms refers to a growth of the plant toward light?
a) negative gravitropism
b) positive gravitropism
c) thigmotropism
d) positive phototropism
Ans. (d)
48. The response of roots growing downward is referred to as
a) negative gravitropism
b) positive gravitropism
c) thigmotropism
d) negative phototropism
Ans. (b)
49. Pea vines twining around a wire support is an example of
a) negative gravitropism
b) positive gravitropism
c) thigmotropism
d) negative phototropism
Ans. (c)
50. Wax melts at temperature
a) 128 °F
b) 132 °F
c) 142 °F
d) 100 °F
Ans. (d)
51. The rate at which honey will be darkened is determined by
a) Exposure to light
b) Storage temperature
c) Amount of enzymes in honey
d) Mineral content in honey
Ans. (b)
52. Silk is made of______ secreted in the fluid state by a caterpillar, popularly known as ‘silkworm.
a) Proteins
b) Enzymes
c) Hormones
d) Lipids
Ans. (a)
53. Silkworm has __________stages in its life cycle
a) 5
b) 4
c) 7
d) 3
Ans. (b)
54. Silkworm has stages in its life cycle viz.,
a) egg, caterpillar, pupa and moth
b) egg, caterpillar and moth
c) egg, pupa and moth
d) caterpillar, pupa and moth
Ans. (a)
55. Silk is a high value but low volume product accounting for only___________ of world’s total textile production
a) 3%
b) 0.2 %
c) 5%
d) 10%
Ans. (b)
56. Asia is the main producer of silk in the world and produces ___________ of the total global output
a) 20%
b) 95 %
c) 50%
d) 35%
Ans. (b)
57. The leading supplier of silk to the world is
a) India
b) China
c) Japan
d) Australia
Ans. (b)
58. The largest consumer of silk in the world is
a) India
b) China
c) Japan
d) Canada
Ans. (a)
59. The general formula of monosacchardies is
a) CnH2nOn
b) C2nH2On
c) CnH2O2n
d) C6H2nO2n
Ans. (a)
60. The general formula of polysaccharides is
a) (C6H10O5)n
b) (C6H12O5)n
c) (C6H12O6)n
d) (C6H10O6)n
Ans. (a)
61. The aldose sugar is
a) Glycerose
b) Fumaric acid
c) Insulin
d) Dihydoxyacetone
Ans. (a)
62. A triose sugar is
a) Glycerose
b) Ribose
c) Maltose
d) Fructose
Ans. (a)
63. A pentose sugar is
a) Dihydroxyacetone
b) Ribulose
c) Maltose
d) Fructose
Ans. (b)
64. The pentose sugar present mainly in the heart muscle is
a) Lyxose
b) Maltose
c) Arabinose
d) Hexose
Ans. (a)
65. Polysaccharides are
a) Polymers
b) Monomer
c) Proteins
d) Lipids
Ans. (a)
66. The number of isomers of glucose is
a) 6
b) 9
c) 8
d) 16
Ans. (d)
67. Retinal is reduced to retinol in intestinal mucosa by a specific retinaldehyde reductase utilising
a) NADPH + H+
b) ATP
c) DPM
d) NADH + H+
Ans. (a)
68. Preformed Vitamin A is supplied by
a) Milk, fat and liver
b) All yellow vegetables
c) Meat and sun
d) Green leafy vegetables
Ans. (a)
69. Retinol and retinal are interconverted requiring dehydrogenase or reductase in the presence of
a) NAD or NADP
b) NADH + H+
c) NADPH + FAD
d) FAD + DPN
Ans. (a)
70. Fat soluble vitamins are
a) Soluble in alcohol
b) One or more Propene units
c) Stored in liver
d) All these
Ans. (d)
71. The international unit of vitamin A is equivalent to the activity caused by
a) 0.3 μg of Vitamin A alcohol
b) 0.344 μg of Vitamin A alcohol
c) 2.8 μg of Vitamin A alcohol
d) 5.0 μg of Vitamin A alcohol
Ans. (a)
72. Lumirhodopsin is stable only at temperature below
a) -70°C
b) 100°C
c) -40°C
d) -50°C
Ans. (d)
73. The net number of ATP formed per mole of glucose in anaerobic glycolysis is
a) 5
b) 2
c) 11
d) 6
Ans. (b)
74. Pyruvate dehydrogenase, a multienzyme complex is required for the production of
a) Acetyl-CoA
b) Lipoate
c) Phosphoenolpyruvate
d) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Ans. (a)
75. Dietary deficiency of thiamine inhibits the activity of which enzyme?
a) Acetyle – CoA
b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
c) Phosphofructokinase
d) Acotinase
Ans. (b)
76. Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity is inhibited by
a) Mercury
b) Cadmium
c) Calcium
d) Potassium
Ans. (a)
77. In the normal resting state of humans, most of the blood glucose burned as fuel is consumed by
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Lungs
d) Stomach
Ans. (a)
78. All the enzymes of glycolysis pathway are found in
a) Extra mitochondrial soluble fraction of the cell
b) Lysosome
c) Golgi bodies
d) Oxisosomes
Ans. (a)
79. The isoenzymes LDH5 is elevated in
a) Throat infection
b) Lung cancer
c) Liver disease
d) Stomach cancer
Ans. (c)
80. On the third day of onset of acute myocardial infarction the enzyme elevated is
a) Serum AST
b) Phospatase
c) Serum LDH
d) Aconitase
Ans. (c)
81. LDH1 and LDH2 are elevated in
a) Myocardial infarction
b) Stomach disease
c) Lung disease
d) Kidney disease
Ans. (a)
82. The enzymes of the pentose phosphate pathway are found in the
a) Cytosol
b) Mitochondria
c) Chloroplast
d) Golgi body
Ans. (a)
83. In pentose phosphate pathway, D-ribulose- 5-phosphate is converted to D-ribose-5- phosphate by the enzyme:
a) Fumarase
b) Ketoisomerase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Lyases
Ans. (b)
84. The transketolase enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway requires the B vitamin.
a) Pantothenic acid
b) Thiamin
c) Riboflavin
d) Cyanocobalamine
Ans. (b)
85. In 1845, the late blight of potato destroyed the potato crop of Ireland, which was caused by:
a) Phytophthora infestans
b) Alternaria solani
c) Pythium aphanidermatum
d) Pseudomonas solanacearum
Ans. (a)
86. In 1943, Bengal had faced a serious famine which cause a great loss in rice yield, which was caused by:
a) Helminthosporium oryzae
b) Pyricularia oryzae
c) Colletotrichum falcatum
d) Fusarium udum
Ans. (a)
87. Bacteria leaf blight of rice caused by Xanthomonas oryzae is commonly controlled by seed treatment and foliar spray of the chemical in India:
a) Streptocycline
b) Agrimycin
c) Aretan
d) RH – 893
Ans. (a)
88. The perfect stage of Colletotrichum falcatum (causes red rot of sugarcane) is:
a) Glomerella tucumanensis
b) Glomerella cingulata
c) Glomerella lindemuthianum
d) None of these
Ans. (a)
89. Molya disease of wheat and barley is caused by:
a) Heterodera schachti
b) Heterodera rostochiensis
c) Heterodera avenae
d) Heterodera glycines
Ans. (c)
90. The Downey mildew of bajra is caused by:
a) Sclerospora sorghi
b) Sclerospora sacchari
c) S.graminicola
d) Perenospora parasitica
Ans. (c)
91. The green ear or downey mildew of pearlmillet was first time reported in India by:
a) KC Mehta
b) E J Butler
c) Mundakur
d) R. Prasad
Ans. (b)
92. Use of appropriate post-harvest technology
a) reduces the post harvest and storage losses
b) adds value to the product
c) generate employment in village and reestablishes agro-industries in rural sector
d) all the above
Ans. (d)
93. Which of the following is correct statement
a) The processing of food, feed, fibre, oilseeds and sugarcane will generate enough employment in rural areas
b) Use of proper post-harvest technology of perishables and semi-perishables will reduce the wastage to great extent.
c) Proper methods of processing, storage, packaging, transport and marketing are required for export of crops such as jute, tea, cashew nuts, tobacco, mango, litchi, nut, spices and condiments
d) All the above are correct
Ans. (d)
94. Which of the following is correct about Requirements of Packaging of grains / food products?
a) The package must stand up to long distance transportation, multiple handling, and the climate changes of different storage places, transport methods and market conditions.
b) In designing fruit packages one should consider both the physiological characteristics of the fruit as well as the whole distribution network
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
95. Which of the following is / are materials used for the packing of perishable commodities?
a) wood and bamboo
b) rigid and foam plastic
c) solid cardboard and corrugated fibre board
d) all the above
Ans. (d)
96. The kind of material or structure adopted for packaging depends on
a) the method of perforation
b) the distance to its destination
c) the value of the product and the requirement of the market
d) all the above
Ans. (d)
97. Corrugated fiberboard is the most widely used material for fruit & vegetable packages because of the following characteristics
a) Light in weight
b) Heavy in weight
c) Flexibility of shape and size
d) Costlier
Ans. (a)
98. Which of the following is correct about Sacks?
a) Sacks are traditionally made of jute fibre or similar natural materials
b) Most jute sacks are provided in a plain weave
c) Sacks made of polypropylene of type plain weave are extensively used for root vegetables
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
99. The large number of combination of two inputs which have some cost is known as:
a) Iso product
b) Iso cost
c) Iso revenue
d) Indifference curve
Ans. (b)
100. The law of diminishing returns applies more generally to:
a) Wood Marketing
b) Fertilizer industry
c) Agriculture industry
d) Food industry
Ans. (c)
101. The law which is very useful in determining the best use of limited resources is:
a) Law of opportunity cost
b) Law of diminishing return
c) Law of substitution
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
102. Rural population is about ____________ of the word population and lives mainly in developing countries:
a) One-third
b) One-fourth
c) One-fifth
d) Two-third
Ans. (d)
103. Rural reconstruction institute was established at Sriniketan in the year:
a) 1922
b) 1931
c) 1908
d) 1921
Ans. (c)
104. Rural sociology is expected to develop greater understanding of the behavior of people and society
a) Urban
b) Rural
c) Both of these
d) None of these
Ans. (b)
105. Special livestock production programme was initiated in the year:
a) 1974-75
b) 1979-80
c) 1978-79
d) 1975-76
Ans. (d)
106. The _________ situation is the bench mark from where people should start the process of programme planning.
a) Regional
b) Local
c) National
d) None of these
Ans. (b)
107. The all-round development of India rural people can be achieved by means of:
a) Extension education
b) More money distribution
c) Adult education
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
108. The authority responsible for planning and implementation of rural development at state level is:
a) Planning commission
b) Agricultural minister
c) State development committee
d) None of them
Ans. (c)
109. Purpose of constructing grassed waterways are
(a) To store water for recycling
(b) To increase ground water recharge
(c) Safe disposal of runoff
(d) To increase ground water recharge.
Ans: c
110. Grassed waterways are constructed
(a) Along the slope
(b) Across the slope
(c) Across the slope on plain area
(d) Across the slope on steeper slope
Ans: a
111. Which of the following is the example of mass erosion?
(a) Sheet erosion
(b) Land slide
(c) Rain splash erosion
(d) Rill erosion
Ans: b
112. Contour bunding is not suitable for
(a) Area with rain fall >600mm and poor internal drainage
(b) Area with rain fall <600 mm and good internal drainage
(c) Rainfall < 600mm
(d) Slope between 2 to 6 %
Ans: b
113. Preferred and most practiced cross section shape of contour bunding is
(a) Trapezoidal
(b) Triangular
(c) Circular
(d) Square
Ans: a
114. For a contour bund of trapezoidal cross section, if top width is 30 cm, side slope is 1:1 horizontal: vertical) and bund height is 30 cm, find out the bottom width
(a) 30cm
(b) 60cm
(c) 90cm
(d) 120cm
Ans: c
115. Rational method of runoff computation, Q = CIA/360, where Q is
(a) Average rate of runoff
(b) Peak rate of runoff
(c) Average rate of rainfall
(d) Total volume of runoff
Ans: b
116. Rational formula (Q = CIA/360) of runoff estimation, is applied for watershed of size
(a) 0-1000 ha
(b) 1000-50,000 ha
(c) 0.5-1 lakh ha
(d) >1 lakhs ha
Ans: a
117. Assumption for Rational method of computation of peak rate of runoff is
(a) Rainfall occurs at uniform intensity for a duration of at least equal to time of concentration
(b) Rainfall occurs at uniform intensity over the entire area of watershed
(c) Both
(d) None
Ans: a
118. Cook’s method for estimation of runoff is application to the watershed of size
(a) > 1 lakhs ha
(b) 0.5-1 lakh ha
(c) 500-50,000 ha
(d) 0-500 ha
Ans: d
119. If Tc is time of concentration, time of peak in hour (Tp) =
(a) (Tc)0.5+0.6T c)
(b) (Tc)5 + 2 Tc
(c) 6Tc
(d) Tc/5
Ans: a
120. Bench mark is a point of
(a) Religious importance
(b) Of known elevation
(c) Strategic importance
(d) A point on top bench terrace
Ans: b
121. For a micro watershed management planning base map of scale is required
(a) 1:50,000
(b) 1:5000
(c) 1:1,00,000
(d) 1:2,50,000
Ans: b
122. What measure of central tendency is most sensitive to skewness?
(a) Mode
(b) Median
(c) Mean
(d) They are all about the same
(e) Median and Mean
Ans: c
123. When the probability that an estimator is close to the parameter it estimates increases as the sample size increases, that estimator is said to be:
(a) Unbiased
(b) Biased
(c) Efficient
(d) Consistent
(e) Sufficient
Ans: d
124. 2,500 registered voters in a municipal corporation is taken. Of these, 750 say they will vote for candidate A. Compute a point estimate for the proportion of the population who will vote for this candidate.
(a) 0.60
(b) 0.04
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.30
(e) None of the above
Ans: d
125. If the variance of random variable X is greater than the variance of random variable Y, then:
(a) The mean of X must be greater than the mean of Y.
(b) The standard deviation of X is greater than the standard deviation of Y.
(c) The probability that X is equal to Y is zero.
(d) The median of X must be equal to the median of Y.
(e) All of the above are true.
Ans: b
126. The mean of the sampling distribution of the sample mean is:
(a) Equal to the population mean divided by n.
(b) An approximation of the mean of the population.
(c) Not a good estimate of the population mean.
(d) Equal to the mean of the population.
(e) None of the above.
Ans: d
127. When the sample size increases, everything else remaining the same, the width of a confidence interval for a population parameter will:
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain unchanged
(d) Sometimes increase and sometimes decrease
(e) Impossible to tell
Ans: b
128. Government wants to estimate the mean number of minutes farmers in a district spend talking Kishan Call Centres with 95% confidence. From past records, an estimate of the standard deviation is 12 minutes. What is the minimum sample size required if the desired width of the confidence interval is 12 minutes?
(a) 28
(b) 11
(c) 23
(d) 19
(e) 16
Ans: e
129. Planning Commission has demarcated the geographical area of India into ________ agro-climatic regions
(a) 20
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 23
Ans. (b)
130. Planning Commission has demarcated the geographical area of India into_______ agro-climatic regions and________ sub-zones
(a) 15, 72
(b) 20, 70
(c) 15, 23
(d) 15, 68
Ans. (a)
131. According to demarcation given by Planning Commission, Western Himalayan Region is located in areas of
(a) Assam, Sikkim, W.Bengal & all North- Eastern states
(b) J&K, HP, UP, Uttarakhand
(c) Punjab, Haryana, Delhi & Rajasthan
(d) Maharashtra, MP & Rajasthan
Ans. (b)
132. According to demarcation given by Planning Commission, Western Plateau and Hills Region is located in areas of
(a) Assam, Sikkim, W. Bengal & all North- Eastern states
(b) J&K, HP, UP, Uttarakhand
(c) Punjab, Haryana, Delhi & Rajasthan
(d) Maharashtra, MP & Rajasthan
Ans. (d)
133. According to demarcation given by Planning Commission, Eastern Plateau and Hills Region is located in areas of
(a) Assam, Sikkim, W. Bengal & all North- Eastern states
(b) J&K, HP, UP, Uttarakhand
(c) Punjab, Haryana, Delhi & Rajasthan
(d) Maharashtra, UP, Odisha & W. Bengal
Ans. (d)
134. According to demarcation given by Planning Commission, Trans-Gangetic Plains Region is located in areas of
(a) Assam, Sikkim, W. Bengal & all North- Eastern states
(b) J&K, HP, UP, Uttarakhand
(c) Punjab, Haryana, Delhi & Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra
Ans. (c)
135. There are _________ development blocks in India.
a) 2000
b) 3000
c) 4000
d) 5000
Ans. (d)
136. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a) Gurgaon project – 1928
b) Sewagram attempt – 1923
c) Sriniketan project – 1921
d) Marthandom project – 1921
Ans. (a)
137. Training Rural Youths for Self Employment (TRYSEM) was initiated in August:
a) 1979
b) 1977
c) 1978
d) 1980
Ans. (a)
138. Under NREP, the state Government has___________ share.
a) 50%
b) 20%
c) 75%
d) 40%
Ans. (a)
139. What does the term DPAP denote?
a) Development project area programme
b) Dry project area programme
c) Drought prone area programme
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
140. Manavodaya recognised as a resource centre for promotion of SHGs in Uttar Pradesh works under
a) NABARD
b) SB I
c) IDBI
d) Union Bank of India
Ans. (a)
141. First SHG in Uttar Pradesh credit linked to bank in
a) 1973-74
b) 1993-94
c) 1983-84
d) 1998-99
Ans. (b)
142. LLP was launched by the ICAR in 1979 as a part of its___________ Jubilee Celebrations.
a) Silver
b) Golden
c) Diamond
d) Platinum
Ans. (b)
143. National Extension Service in India was established in:
a) 1947
b) 1962
c) 1960
d) 1953
Ans. (d)
144. National Agriculture Extension project was launched by:
a) UGC
b) Government of India
c) ICAR
d) NABARD
Ans. (c)
145. Which of the following is correct statement?
a) Jersey breed is known for the milk fat percent
b) Holstein is known for the high quantity of milk
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
146. Which of the following is correct about Tharparkar breed of cattle?
a) The ears are somewhat long, broad and semi – pendulous and face forwards
b) The hump of males is moderately well developed, firm and placed in front of the withers
c) Body colour is white or light grey
d) All the above are correct
Ans. (d)
147. The Karan Swiss is the excellent crossbred cattle obtained by crossing
a) Brown Swiss with Sahiwal cattle
b) Red Dane with Sahiwal cattle
c) Kankarej with Sahiwal cattle
d) Gir with Sahiwal cattle
Ans. (a)
148. Which of the following is correct about Toda breed of Buffalo?
a) This buffalo is named after an ancient tribe, Toda of Nilgiris Hills of south India and it is a semi-wild breed
b) The milk yield ranges from 700 to 1200 kgs per lactation
c) The breeding tract of this breed is Nagpur, Akola and Amrawati districts of Maharashtra.
d) This breed is also called as Elitchpuri or Barari
Ans. (a)
149. Which of the following is correct about Mehsana breed of Buffalo?
a) The breed is evolved out of crossbreeding between the Surti and the Murrah
b) The milk yield is 1200-1500 kgs per lactation
c) The horns are less curved than in Murrah and are irregular
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
150. Which of the following is correct about Nili Ravi breed of Buffalo?
a) The fat content of milk varies from 6 to 12.5 per cent
b) This breed is found in Sutlej valley in Ferozpur district of Punjab and in the Sahiwal (Pakistan) of undivided India
c) The body is usually light or copper coloured is a peculiarity of this breed
d) All the above
Ans. (b)
151. Which of the following is indigenous breed of buffalo?
a) Murrah
b) Surti
c) Jaffrabadi
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
152. Which of the following is Indian sheep breed?
a) Mecheri
b) Chennai red
c) Ramanadhapuram white
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
153. Which of the following is Indian sheep breed?
a) Vembur
b) Dorset
c) Suffolk
d) Merino
Ans. (a)
154. The number of adenine and thymine bases is equal in
a) DNA
b) sRNA
c) tRNA
d) rRNA
Ans. (a)
155. The number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine in DNA is
a) 5
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1
Ans. (b)
156. In the process of transcription in bacterial cells
a) RNA polymerase incorporates methylated bases in correct sequence
b) Initiation requires rho protein
c) Both the sigma unit and core enzymes of RNA polymerase are required for accurate promotor site binding
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
157. Which of the following statement concerning RNA and DNA polymerases is correct?
a) DNA polymerases can add nucleotides at both ends of the chain
b) RNA polymerase require primers and add bases at 5′ end of the growing polynucleotide chain
c) RNA polymerase use nucleoside diphosphates
d) All RNA and DNA polymerases can add nucleotides only at the 3′ end of the growing polynucleotide chain
Ans. (d)
158. The eukaryotic nuclear chromosomal DNA is
a) a linear and unbranched molecule
b) not associated with a specific membranous organelle
c) not replicated semiconservatively
d) about of the same size as each prokaryotic chromoses
Ans. (a)
159. The function of a repressor protein in an operon system is to prevent synthesis by binding to
a) The ribosome
b) A specific region of the operon preventing transcription of structural genes
c) The RNA polymerase
d) Endonuclease
Ans. (b)
160. All pribnow boxes are variants of the sequence:
a) 5′-TATAAT-3′
b) 5′-UAACAA-3′
c) 5-GAGCCA-3′
d) 5-TCCTAG-3′
Ans. (a)