Compilation of the most probable general knowledge questions and answers on agriculture for various examination! This will help you to learn about the most frequently asked objective type questions on agriculture especially compiled for ICAR (JRF/SRF), NET, ARS, IARI Ph.D and other competitive exams.
1. Concept of “crystallized labour’ given by ______
(A) Marshall
(B) Keynes
(C) Mill
(D) Karl Marx
Ans. D
2. Sensitivity analysis is used in ______
(A) Preparation of project
(B) Appraisals
(C) Implementation
(D) Forecasting/evaluation
Ans. D
3. Project planning and budgeting are used to know _______
(A) Commercial aspect
(B) Financial aspects
(C) Economics aspects
(D) Technical aspects of project
Ans. B
4. Capital formation in agriculture over the years
(A) Decreasing
(B) Increasing
(C) Both A and B
(D) Constant
Ans. A
5. GNP deflator is _________
(A) Nominal GNP/Nominal GDP
(B) Nominal GNP/Real GNP
(C) Nominal GNP/Real GDP
(D) Real GNP/Nominal GDP
Ans. B
6. Keynes is related to which inflation theory
(A) Cost push
(B) Demand pull
(C) Structural theory
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
7. In case of amortized even repayment plan, the interest rate
(A) Increases
(B) Declines
(C) Remains constant
(D) Not related
Ans. B
8. Nationalization of bank was carried out on _______
(A) 19th June 1969
(B) 19th July 1969
(C) 19th August 1969
(B) 2nd October 1969
Ans. B
9. Single window system was recommended by _______
(A) Narashimhan
(B) Dr. Gadgil
(C) Mohan Kanda
(D) Mohan Prakash
Ans. C
10. “The law of diminishing return” is not concerned with profits because
(A) It assumes profits are there in the business
(B) It deals with all the inputs at a time
(C) It is related to physical product only
(D) TPP is declining in third zone of production function
Ans. C
11. Cost calculated per hectare is called _______
(A) Cost of production
(B) Cost of cultivation
(C) Economic cost
(D) Opportunity cost
Ans. B
12. Which of the following is not a type of farming
(A) Dry Farming
(B) Ranching
(C) Joint farming
(D) Mixed farming
Ans. C
13. Which of the following is an explicit cost
(A) Fertilizer
(B) Farm Manager’s labour
(C) Farm family labour
(D) Retained seed
Ans. A
14. The concept of opportunity cost was introduced by _______
(A) J.S. Mill
(B) J.M. Keynes
(C) Alfred Marshall
(D) Ricardo
Ans. A
15. There is scope for reorganization of resources in of production function
(A) Zone I
(B) Zone II
(C) Zone III
(D) Zone I and III
Ans. D
16. In a production function, when MPP increases, TPP
(A) Increases at increasing rate
(B) Increases at decreasing rate
(C) Increases at constant rate
(D) Decreases at constant rate
Ans. A
17. Production possibility curve is concave to the origin when products substitute at _________
(A) Constant rate
(B) Increasing rate
(C) Decreasing rate
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
18. Return to scale is production function
(A) Long run
(B) Short run
(C) Very short run
(D) Discrete
Ans. A
19. The speculative demand for money is otherwise called as ________
(A) Business motive
(B) Transaction motive
(C) Keynes liquidity trap
(D) Precautionary motive
Ans. C
20. The ratio of consumption expenditure to income is called ________
(A) Basic consumption
(B) Expected consumption
(C) Average propensity to consume
(D) Marginal propensity to consume
Ans. C
21. What does a coefficient of correlation of 0.70 means?
(A) Almost no correlation because 0.70 is close to 1.0
(B) 70% of the variation in one variable is explained by other variable
(C) Coefficient of determination is 0.49
(D) Coefficient of non-determination is 0.30
Ans. C
22. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the coefficient of correlation
(A) It can range from -1 to 1
(B) Its square is the Coefficient of determination
(C) It measures the percent of variation explained
(D) It is a measure of the association between two variables
Ans. C
23. The degree of correlation coefficient may be ascertained by ________
(A) Scatter diagram
(B) Histogram
(C) Correlation table
(D) Any one of the above
Ans. A
24. If all the points in a scatter diagram lies on a straight line, the value of the correlation coefficient is?
(A) Always +1
(B) Always -1
(C) Always 0
(D) Either +1 or -1
Ans. D
25. If two variables are uncorrelated the lines of regression
(A) Becomes parallel
(B) Become perpendicular to each other
(C) Angle between them is 45 degree
(D) Angle between them is 60 degree
Ans. B
26. The lines of regression intersect each other at coordinates
(A) (0, 0)
(B) (0, y)
(C) (x̅, 0)
(D) (x̅, y̅)
Ans. D
27. Sum of square for ‘Lake of fit’ and ‘Pure error’ are the breakup of ______
(A) Regression SS
(B) Error SS
(C) Total SS
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
28. The correlation coefficient of y on x is 0.25, then the regression coefficient of x on y is _____
(A) Equal to 4
(B) Less than 4
(C) Greater than 4
(D) Lies between 0 to 4
Ans. A
29. The correlation coefficient r is the _____ of two regression coefficient byx and bxy?
(A) Arithmetic mean
(B) Harmonic mean
(C) Geometric mean
(D) Weighted arithmetic mean
Ans. C
30. If r is the correlation coefficient then arithmetic mean of two regression coefficient byx and bxy (not equal) is always?
(A) Equal to r
(B) Less than r
(C) Greater than r
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
31. Both regression coefficients have?
(A) Different signs
(B) Different signs as compared to correlation coefficient
(C) Same signs as of correlation coefficient
(D) Have same meaning as square-root of correlation coefficient
Ans. C
32. The farther the two regression lines cut each other the degree of correlation will be ________
(A) Greater
(B) Lesser
(C) Does not matter
(D) Zero
Ans. B
33. The variable plotted on the horizontal or X-axis in a scatter diagram is called the __________
(A) Scatter variable
(B) Independent variable
(C) Dependent variable
(D) Correlation variable
Ans. B
34. In general, for a better fit regression equation the value of R2 is nearer to ________
(A) 0
(B) +1
(C) -1
(D) ∞
Ans. B
35. If the two random variables x and y are connected by the relationship 2x + y = 3 then rxy is equals to ________
(A) 1
(B) -1
(C) 0.5
(D) 2/3
Ans. B
36. Suppose the slope of a regression line is 5 and r = 0.60. If response (y) data point is multiplied by 0.06, what will the new slope and r be?
(A) 5 and 0.60, respectively
(B) 0.3 and 0.60, respectively
(C) 5 and 0.036, respectively
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
37. A regression equation is used to ________
(A) Measure the association between two variables
(B) Estimate the value of the dependent variable based on the independent variable
(C) Estimate the value of the independent variable based on dependent variable
(D) Estimate the coefficient of the determination
Ans. B
38. The coefficient of determination is the _________
(A) Ratio of the explained variation to the total deviation
(B) Ratio of the unexplained deviation to the explained deviation
(C) Ratio of the unexplained deviation to the total variation
(D) Ratio of the explained variation to the total variation
Ans. D
39. When a regression analysis is conducted, the controllable variable that can be fixed by the person collecting the data is the _________
(A) Dependent variable
(B) Independent variable
(C) Slope of the regression line
(D) Intercept of the regression line
Ans. B
40. A linear regression between Y and X produced the following equation for the least squares line Y = 2.15 – 3.5X. Which of the following statements concerning this relationship is true?
(A) For every one-unit increase in Y, X increases 3.2 units
(B) For every one-unit increase in X, Y decreases 3.2 units
(C) For every one-unit increase in X, Y decreases 3.2 units
(D) For every one-unit increase in Y, X increases 3.2 units
Ans. C
41. Which of the following in a pest of paddy belonging to Family Cicadellidae:
(A) Tryporyza incertulus
(B) Nephotettix apicalis
(C) Nilaparvata lugens
(D) Leptocorisa acuta
Ans. B
42. Which of the following Orders comprises phytophagous insects:
(A) Odonata
(B) Phasmida
(C) Siphonaptera
(D) Mallophaga
Ans. B
43. Which of the following is a neuropteran predator:
(A) Menodrilus
(B) Brumus
(C) Chrysopterta
(D) Cryptolacmus
Ans. C
44. The main host tree of eri silk worm is_______
(A) Castor
(B) Mulberry
(C) Sal
(D) Ber
Ans. A
45. The main characteristic feature of an insect is _____
(A) Presence of wings
(B) Three body regions
(C) Three pairs of legs
(D) One pair of antennae
Ans. C
46. The insects are able to maintain the balance while walking due to _____
(A) Hexapod
(B) Exoskeleton
(C) Small size
(D) Wings
Ans. A
47. The incidence of ‘White grubs’ is heavy in _____
(A) Heavily water-logged fields
(B) Dry fields of heavy clay soil
(C) Dry fields having sandy loam soil
(D) Desert land having little vegetation
Ans. A
48. The exchange of gases in respiration in insects takes place through _______
(A) Gills
(B) Spiracles
(C) Lungs
(D) Cuticle
Ans. B
49. Who is known as father of “Insect Physiology”?
(A) R.F. Chapman
(B) Snodgrass
(C) V.B. Wigglesworth
(D) R.L. Stevenson
Ans. C
50. Who coined the term ‘Pest Management’:
(A) Geier
(B) Dry Perry Adkissan
(C) Bartlett
(D) Dr. Ray F. Smith
Ans. A
51. The female mosquitoes possess:
(A) Filiform antennae
(B) Plumose antennae
(C) Moniliform antennae
(D) Serrate antennae
Ans. B
52. Chitty’s theory of population dynamics is based on _____
(A) Abiotic factors
(B) Both abiotic and biotic factors
(C) Biotic factors
(D) Genetic factors
Ans. D
53. The number of segments which make the insect’s head is _________
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Ans. C
54. The potential produced in the dendrite of the sense organ by depolarization is called _________
(A) Resting potential
(B) Generator potential
(C) Receptor potential
(D) Action potential
Ans. C
55. The queen termite produces following number of eggs per second:
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70
Ans. B
56. The percentage of zinc phosphide in poison bait for rat is _________
(A) 1%
(B) 3%
(C) 2%
(D) 4%
Ans. C
57. The sperms after insemination are stored in __________
(A) Vagina
(B) Accessory glands
(C) Spermatheca
(D) Seminal vesicle
Ans. C
58. The paddy variety ‘Mudgo’ is resistant to Brown plant hopper because of _____
(A) Nutritional deficiency
(B) Presence of toxins
(C) Nutritional imbalance
(D) Presence of growth inhibitors
Ans. A
59. Longest duration of life cycle is observed in _________
(A) Rhinoceros beetle
(B) Giant water bugs
(C) Cicada
(D) Tortoise beetle
Ans. C
60. Tomato leaf curl virus is transmitted by _________
(A) Aphid
(B) Grasshopper
(C) Whitefly
(D) Butterfly
Ans. C
61. Tree banding is useful for the control of _________
(A) Mango hopper
(B) Mango stem borer
(C) Bark eating caterpillar
(D) Mango mealy bug
Ans. D
62. When meso- and meta-thoracic and 8 abdominal spiracles are functional, the respiratory system is called _____
(A) Holopneustic
(B) Hemipneustic
(C) Peripneustic
(D) Metapneustic
Ans. A
63. In honey bees, the nectar is converted into honey:
(A) In the alimentary canal of queen
(B) In royal chamber
(C) In the alimentary canal of worker
(D) In Special cells of the hive
Ans. C
64. Scientific name of cigarette beetle is _____
(A) Leucaena leucociphella
(B) Lasioderma serricorne
(C) Chrysocoris purpureus
(D) Pempelia morosalis
Ans. B
65. Which insecticide is stored in the fat of milch animals?
(A) Malathion
(B) Lindane
(C) DDT
(D) Endosulfan
Ans. C
66. The term cistorn, muton and recon were introduced by _______
(A) Watson and Crick
(B) Meselson
(C) S. Benzer
(D) Morgan
Ans. C
67. Extra nuclear genetic material is found in ______
(A) Plastid and nucleus
(B) Nucleus and cytoplasm
(C) Mitochondria and plastids
(D) Mitochondria and nucleus
Ans. C
68. DNA molecules makes a complete turn after every
(A) 20 Å
(B) 3.4 Å
(C) 34 Å
(D) 10 base pairs
Ans. D
69. The distance between two successive nitrogenous base pairs is _______
(A) 34 Å
(B) 20 Å
(C) 36 Å
(D) 3.4 Å
Ans. D
70. The enzyme DNA polymerase can work only in ________
(A) 3′ → 5′ direction
(B) Both the direction
(C) 5′ → 3′ direction
(D) 5′ → 5′ direction
Ans. C
71. Plants developed in vitro culture from pollen grains are ______
(A) Androgenic plants
(B) Male plants
(C) Pollen plants
(D) Sterile plants
Ans. C
72. In the crown gall disease caused by Agrobacterium tumericans, opines are a responsible
(A) Responsible for tumour formation
(B) Made by Agrobacterium and used for pathogenesis
(C) Made by tumour and used for tumour growth
(D) Made by tumours and secreted
Ans. C
73. Which ones produce androgenic haploids in anther cultures?
(A) Anther wall
(B) Connective tissue
(C) Tapetal layer of anther wall
(D) Young pollen-grains
Ans. A
74. DNA sequence of ATTCGATG is transcribed as __________
(A) AUUCGAUG
(B) CAUCGAAU
(C) UAAGCUAC
(D) GUAGCUUA
Ans. C
75. DNA replication is _______
(A) Conservative and discontinuous
(B) Semiconservative and discontinuous
(C) Conservative
(D) Semiconservative and semidiscontinuous
Ans. B
76. Functional unit of gene that specifies synthesis of one polypeptide is ______
(A) Codon
(B) Recon
(C) Cistron
(D) Muton
Ans. C
77. Initiation Codon of protein synthesis (in eukaryotes) is _______
(A) GUA
(B) CCA
(C) GCA
(D) AUG
Ans. D
78. Enzyme required for removing RNA primer during DNA replication is ________
(A) DNA primase
(B) DNA polymerase I
(C) DNA ligase
(D) DNA polymerase III
Ans. B
79. Which of the following enzyme is required to release the tension imposed by uncoiling of strands
(A) Endonuclease
(B) DNA gyrase
(C) DNA ligase
(D) DNA helicase
Ans. B
80. The type II restriction endonucleases, bind to DNA sites
(A) Using H-bonds for specificity
(B) Using non-sequence dependent backbone interactions
(C) That are usually palindromic
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
81. Nucleotides present in one turn of DNA helix
(A) 4
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. B
82. Most abundant RN A of the cell of _________
(A) tRNA
(B) mRNA
(C) rRNA
(D) hnRNA
Ans. C
83. Semiconservative DNA/Chromosome replication using 14N was demonstrated by _________
(A) Messelson
(B) Messelson and Stahl
(C) Tylor
(D) Hershey and Chase
Ans. B
84. Automated PCR machines use a heat stable ______
(A) DNA ligase
(B) Primase
(C) Helicase
(D) DNA polymerase
Ans. D
85. RNA populations can also be used as PCR templates after reverse transcription into
(A) cDNA
(B) mDNA
(C) tRNA
(D) r RNA
Ans. A
86. Polymerase chain reaction basically consists of __________
(A) Two Steps
(B) Four Steps
(C) Three Steps
(D) Five Steps
Ans. C
87. The enzyme(s) used in PCR reaction is/are known as __________
(A) E. coli DNA polymerase
(B) Taq polymerase
(C) E. coli RNA polymerase
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
88. One of the first enzymes synthesized by many bacteriophages is _______ an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
(A) RNA transcriptase
(B) RNA ligase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) RNA replicase
Ans. D
89. Which protein keeps the prophage dormant and prevents virus reproduction
(A) Operator
(B) Repressor
(C) Promotor
(D) Enhancer
Ans. B
90. Enhancer regions in eukaryotic DNA are __________
(A) DNA Pol I binding sites
(B) Enhance the frequency of transcription
(C) Inhibit the binding of repressor
(D) Specific for given set of genes
Ans. B
91. In contrast to DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase
(A) Works only in 5’to 3′ direction
(B) Edits as it synthesizes
(C) Fills in the gap between Okazaki fragments
(D) Synthesizes RNA primer to initiate DNA synthesis.
Ans. D
92. Telomerase does which of the following
(A) Joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand
(B) Catalyzes DNA replication at the ends of chromosome
(C) Enhances transcription
(D) Requires dCTP
Ans. B
93. Eukaryotic RNA polymerase I is specialized to transcribe which of the following
(A) mRNA
(B) Ribosomal RNA
(C) tRNA
(D) Mitochondrial RNA
Ans. B
94. Starch content of potatoes can be increased by using a bacterial gene, known as __________
(A) Sucrose phosphate synthase gene
(B) ADP glucose pyrophosphorylase gene
(C) Polygalactouranase gene
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
95. In a ________ protocol bacteria with engineered abilities to detoxify pollutants are intentionally released in an area
(A) Microcosm establishment
(B) Bioremediation
(C) Mibridization
(D) Rhizosecretion
Ans. B
96. Actinomycin D is an inhibitor of _____
(A) Replication
(B) Transcription
(C) Translation
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
97. Which of the following metabolites are implicated in stress tolerance
(A) Proline
(B) Betaines
(C) Citrate
(D) Both A and B
Ans. D
98. Which of the following gene is responsible for resistance against chilling?
(A) Polygalactouranase
(B) Glycerol 1 phosphate acyl transferase
(C) ACC deaminase
(D) Sucrose phosphate synthase gene
Ans. B
99. Which of the following gene detoxifies herbicide phosphinothricin
(A) Nitrilase
(B) Phosphinothricin acetyl transferase
(C) Glutathione S-transferase
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
100. Biopatents are _______
(A) Right to use invention
(B) Right to use products
(C) Right to use biological entities
(D) Right to use process
Ans. C
101. Heavy, thick, slimy film of bacteria in the slow process of vinegar manufacture reduces
(A) The rate of hydrogenation
(B) The rate of esterification
(C) The rate of acetification
(D) The rate of purification
Ans. C
102. The potential spoilage organism in beer is ________
(A) Saccharomyces diastaticus
(B) S. cerevisiae
(C) S. carlsbergensis
(D) S. lactis
Ans. A
103. Which of the following is an anticancer drug
(A) 5- methyl thymidine
(B) Ara C
(C) Ribo sephosphate
(D) PRPP (5-phosphorribosyl pyrophosphate)
Ans. B
104. Devine and Collego are two trade names for
(A) Bioherbicides
(B) Bioinsecticide
(C) Biofungicide
(D) Natural Insecticides
Ans. A
105. Gene for resistance to late blight of potato has been obtained from:
(A) Solatium vernei
(B) S. stoloniferum
(C) S. acaule
(D) S. demissum
Ans. D
106. First bioinsecticide developed on commercial scale was _________
(A) Quinine
(B) DDT
(C) Organophosphates
(D) Sporeins
Ans. D
107. Gene for resistance to late blight of potato has been obtained from
(A) Solarium vernei
(B) S. stoloniferum
(C) S. acaule
(D) S. demissum
Ans. D
108. What is the end product of leucine metabolism?
(A) Acetyl-CoA
(B) Oxaloacetic acid
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) Acetyl carnitine
Ans. A
109. The first biochemical systems on Earth were probably inherited with which one of the following bio-molecules
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Proteins
(C) DNA
(D) RNA
Ans. D
110. The mutagenicity of a compound can be detected by ________
(A) ELISA
(B) Western blotting
(C) Ame’s test
(D) Any of the above
Ans. C
111. Which of the following statement is correct _______
(A) Apurinic site is created by the cleavage of phosphodiester bond
(B) Purine dimmer is less common
(C) Both A and B
(D) None
Ans. B
112. One of the following ribonucleotide reductase (RR) is sensitive to oxygen
(A) Class I RR
(B) Class II RR
(C) Class III RR
(D) Class IV RR
Ans. C
113. The enzyme/s responsible for strand separation to begin replication
(A) DNA helicase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) Sliding DNA clamps
(D) Both A and B
Ans. A
114. Gene for resistance to late blight of potato has been obtained from ________
(A) Solanum vernei
(B) S. stoloniferum
(C) S. acaule
(D) S. demissum
Ans. D
115. Which of the following is NOT required for RecA-dependent recombination between two DNA molecules
(A) Strand migration
(B) Ligation
(C) Mismatch repair
(D) Nuclease digestion
Ans. C
116. An E.coli strain lacks DNA polymerase I would be deficient in DNA
(A) Repair
(B) Methylation
(C) Splicing
(D) Degradation
Ans. A
117. The size of Human genome is ________
(A) 3 billion bp
(B) 3 x 109 bp
(C) 300 Mb
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
118. Aminopurine is a mutagen and is analogue to _________
(A) Base
(B) Nucleotide
(C) Nucleoside
(D) Pyramidine
Ans. B
119. Which protein is necessary for Rho independent mechanism of termination of transcription?
(A) Sigma
(B) RNA polymerase
(C) SSBs
(D) DNA helicase
Ans. B
120. Which component of the open complex must change conformation before promoter escape?
(A) DNA polymerase
(B) Sigma factor
(C) DNA Strand
(D) Promoter region
Ans. B
121. Protein binding regions of DNA are identified by one of the following techniques
(A) Finger printing
(B) Foot printing
(C) Southern blotting
(D) Western blotting
Ans. B
122. Which of the following process require energy
(A) Ligation
(B) Transformation
(C) Restriction digestion
(D) Hybridization
Ans. A
123. Enzyme papain is used with success to ______
(A) Increase meat production
(B) Leaven bread
(C) Ripen papaya fruit
(D) Tenderize meat
Ans. D
124. The reported increase in Rice yield through inoculation of Azolla is _______
(A) 10%
(B) 50%
(C) 30%
(D) 20%
Ans. B
125. ABA in biopatenting is _________
(A) Access and benefit-sharing agreement
(B) Access to biological agent
(C) Active biopatent age
(D) Active biomolecule agent
Ans. A
126. Biopiracy is related to ________
(A) Traditional knowledge
(B) Biomolecules, genes isolated from bioresources
(C) Bioresources
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
127. Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by _________
(A) X-ray crystallography
(B) Electron microscope
(C) Ultracentrifuge
(D) Light microscope
Ans. A
128. Which factor is required for the formation of closed complex in bacterial transcription initiation?
(A) Sigma factor
(B) Gre factor
(C) Rho factor
(D) SSBPs
Ans. A
129. Mobile genetic element present in human genome are _________
(A) LINEs elements
(B) P and IS elements
(C) SINEs elements
(D) Both A and B
Ans. D
130. Father of DNA fingerprinting is ______
(A) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
(B) Wishwanath
(C) Alec Jeffreys
(D) Rockfeller
Ans. C
131. Providing seeds and fertilizers to the farmers, it is example of _______
(A) Complexity
(B) Trialability
(C) Compatibility
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
132. Adoption process includes how many stages according to the North central rural sociology
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans. C
133. Adoption is a ______
(A) Social process
(B) Mental process
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
134. The percentage of early adopters are ______
(A) 2.5
(B) 13.5
(C) 34
(D) 16
Ans. B
135. The percentage of early majority are ______
(A) 2.5
(B) 13.5
(C) 34
(D) 16
Ans. C
136. The percentage of laggards are ______
(A) 2.5
(B) 13.5
(C) 34
(D) 16
Ans. D
137. First to adopt new idea, much ahead of other members in the community is called ______
(A) Early majority
(B) Early adopters
(C) Innovators
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
138. Excessive use of pesticides is example of _______
(A) Adoption
(B) Over adoption
(C) Adopters
(D) Rejection
Ans. B
139. Frequency of adopters when plotted over time follows a _______
(A) Bell shaped
(B) U -shaped
(C) S- shaped
(D) Z- Shaped
Ans. A
140. Commutative frequency of adopters when plotted over time follows a ______
(A) Bell shaped
(B) U-shaped
(C) S-shaped
(D) Z-Shaped
Ans. C
141. Individual has almost complete responsibility for the decision in ______
(A) Authority innovation decision
(B) Collective innovation decision
(C) Optional innovation decision
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
142. Correct sequence of group formation stages is ______
(A) Storming-forming-norming-performing
(B) Forming- norming-storming-performing
(C) Forming-storming-norming-performing
(D) Norming-storming-forming-performing
Ans. C
143. The word “Liassez faire” has been derived from ______
(A) Latin
(B) Greek
(C) Roman
(D) French
Ans. D
144. Multimedia docs not covers
(A) Text
(B) Graphic
(C) Paper
(D) Image
Ans. C
145. Hierarchy need theory of motivation was given by _________
(A) Chris Argyris
(B) Hezerberg
(C) Alderfer
(D) Abraham H. Maslow
Ans. D
146. Warna wired project was first started from ______
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Delhi
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. A
147. Eastern Extension Education Institute (EEEI) situated in ______
(A) Assam
(B) Nagaland
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Sikkim
Ans. A
148. Who is father of Management by Objective (MBO)
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Ingham
(C) Neela Kabir
(D) Leela Mukharji
Ans. A
149. Grapevine communication is a ______
(A) Informal communication
(B) Formal communication
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
150. Highest KVK recorded in which state
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans. A
151. The last stage in the innovation-decision process as given by Roger is _____
(A) Adoption
(B) Evaluation
(C) Confirmation
(D) Diffusion
Ans. C
152. The apex training institute at state level to give training support to ATMA is _______
(A) MANAGE
(B) EEI
(C) CAPART
(D) SAMETI
Ans. D
153. Large group when divided into smaller groups (units) for a short period of discussion is called _________
(A) Brain storming
(B) Buzz session
(C) Conference
(D) Workshop
Ans. B
154. Which element/component is not related with effective learning situation
(A) Scientist
(B) Teacher
(C) Learners
(D) Physical facilities
Ans. A
155. The chairman of planning commission is _________
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Prime-minister
(D) Person appointed by Prime minister
Ans. C
156. Which one of the following is not an element of diffusion process?
(A) Innovation
(B) Social system
(C) Over time
(D) Persuasion
Ans. D
157. The Entrepreneur are catalyst in the process of _________
(A) Cultural development
(B) Social development
(C) Ethical development
(D) Economic development
Ans. D
158. PTD in extension stands for ________
(A) Participatory Technology Development
(B) Planned Training Design
(C) Planned Technology Development
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
159. The effective rate of delivering a radio talk for extension purpose is ________
(A) 80-100 words/minute
(B) 120-140 words/minute
(C) 160-180 words/minute
(D) 200-220 words/minute
Ans. B
160. A special type of working conference, usually of a week or more in duration with lectures, individual conference giving emphasis on small working groups is _______
(A) Conference
(B) Panel discussion
(C) Symposium
(D) Workshop
Ans. D
161. The process through which we arrive at expectations and anticipations of internal psychological state of man is _______
(A) Psychological observation
(B) Empathy
(C) Exploration
(D) Empowerment
Ans. B
162. Letters for communication in extension should follow the “4S Formula”. 4S include
(A) Shortness, Simplicity, Strength, Sincerity
(B) Swiftness, Shortness, Strength, Sincerity
(C) Steadfast, Swiftness, Strength, Shortness
(D) Severity, Shortness, Swiftness, Simplicity
Ans. A
163. A meeting in which a small group of resource persons present short prepared papers on a given topic is _________
(A) Workshop
(B) Symposium
(C) Syndicate method
(D) Case study
Ans. B
164. National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) was set in __________
(A) 1984
(B) 1988
(C) 1986
(D) 1982
Ans. C
165. The session of brainstorming in which the participants are expected to express their ideas without thinking about their reaction is _________
(A) Red session
(B) Yellow session
(C) Blue session
(D) Green session
Ans. D
166. ATMA is an important component under
(A) NARS
(B) NATP
(C) NAEP
(D) KVK
Ans. B
167. Take the odd man out from the following
(A) County club leadership
(B) Middle road leadership
(C) Lassez-faire leadership
(D) Team leadership
Ans. C
168. NATP funded by __________
(A) ICAR
(B) FAO
(C) World Bank
(D) ICAR
Ans. C
169. In which of the following social map is a tool most commonly used
(A) PRA
(B) RRA
(C) FSR
(D) ATP
Ans. A
170. Community development programme (CDP) launched in __________
(A) 2nd Oct 1952
(B) 2nd Oct 1951
(C) 2nd August 1952
(D) 2nd August 1951
Ans. A
171. Two tier ‘Panchayati raj’ given by __________
(A) Ashok Mehta
(B) Narayan Murthy
(C) Chandrika Prasad
(D) Balwant Rai Mehta
Ans. A
172. National food security mission (NFSM) launched in _________
(A) 2001
(B) 2007
(C) 2008
(D) 2009
Ans. B
173. Intensive Agriculture District Programme (IADP) was launched in _________
(A) 1980
(B) 1860
(C) 1960
(D) 1961
Ans. C
174. Which is not projected aids
(A) Film strip
(B) Opaque projector
(C) Overhead projection
(D) Flip chart
Ans. D
175. Distance in any given direction one expect to go during a period of time
(A) Goal
(B) Aim
(C) Objective
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
176. When plough works round a strip a strip of ploughed land, then it is called as ______
(A) Gathering
(B) Crowning
(C) Casting
(D) Ridging
Ans. A
177. When plough works round a strip a strip of unploughed land, then it is called _________
(A) Gathering
(B) Crowning
(C) Casting
(D) Ridging
Ans. C
178. The inside angle between shoe and body of desi plough varies from ________
(A) 42-45°
(B) 116-160°
(C) 15-25°
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
179. Perfect seeding implies, correct
(A) Amount of seed per unit area
(B) Depth of dropping
(C) Spacing between row to row and plant to plant
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
180. A check row planting associated to ________
(A) Maintains row to row distance
(B) Both A and C
(C) Maintains seed to seed distance
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
181. Methods of sowing are _________
(A) Broadcasting, Dibbling
(B) Drilling, Transplanting
(C) Hill dropping and Check row planting
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
182. Field ploughing with reversible type MB plough there is no
(A) Back furrow
(B) Both A and C
(C) Dead furrow
(D) None of them
Ans. B
183. Internal double run type seed metering mechanism is suitable for _________
(A) Larger seeds
(B) Smaller seeds
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of them
Ans. C
184. Shovel type of furrow openers are most suitable for __________
(A) Stony soils
(B) Both A and C
(C) Root infested soil
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
185. In seed drill, the shoe type furrow openers works well
(A) Black cotton soil
(B) Stony soil
(C) Trashy soil
(D) Loamy soil
Ans. A
186. Testing of seed drill is done by __________
(A) Sticky belt method
(B) Both A and C
(C) Sand bed method
(D) None of them
Ans. B
187. In dibbling method for sowing of one hectare of land by requires
(A) 150 to 200 man-hours
(B) 250 to 300 man-hours
(C) 200 to 250 man-hours
(D) 300 to 450 man-hours
Ans. C
188. Functions of sprayer are __________
(A) To break the liquid into droplets of effective size
(B) To distribute the droplets uniformly over the plants
(C) To regulate the amount of spray materials
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
189. Operating pressure of hand operated sprayer ranges from ______
(A) 1-7 kg/cm2
(B) 2-3 kg/cm2
(C) 3-5 kg/cm2
(D) 5-7 kg/cm2
Ans. A
190. Power operated sprayer’s pressure ranges __________
(A) 1-7 kg/cm2
(B) 10-20 kg/cm2
(C) 20-55 kg/cm2
(D) 60-110 kg/cm2
Ans. C
191. In high volume spray amount of liquid sprayed in one hectare in liters
(A) < 5
(B) 5-400
(C) > 400
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
192. Amount of liquid required in one by spraying in low volume sprayer
(A) < 5 liters
(B) 5-400 liters
(C) > 400 liters
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
193. Ultra low volume spray uses amount of liquid
(A) < 5 liters/ha
(B) 5-400 liters/ha
(C) > 400 liters/ha
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
194. A machine used to cut herbage crop is known as _________
(A) Combine
(B) Reaper
(C) Mower
(D) Reaper binder
Ans. C
195. Machine used to cut the crop and deliver them in a uniform way in the row
(A) Combine
(B) Windrower
(C) Mower
(D) Reaper binder
Ans. B
196. The term ferrule is associated to _________
(A) Reaper
(B) Mower
(C) Sickle
(D) Thresher
Ans. C
197. For proper alignment the cutter bar is set at about to the direction of motion
(A) 88°
(B) 111°
(C) 2°
(D) 90°
Ans. A
198. In mounted vertical conveyor reaper the crop is guided by _________
(A) Flywheel
(B) Cutter bar
(C) Guard
(D) Star wheel
Ans. D
199. Reaper binder cuts the crop at a height from the ground
(A) 20 cm
(B) 7 cm
(C) 10 cm
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
200. Origin place of Olpad thresher is ______
(A) West Bengal
(B) Gujrat
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) All of the above
Ans. B