175 + Agriculture Questions and Answers for Competitive Exams!
Contents:
- MCQs on Agricultural Microbiology
- MCQs on Entomology
- MCQs on Agricultural Economics
- MCQs on Agricultural Extension
- MCQs on Agricultural Statistics
- MCQs on Farm Machinery and Power Engineering
1. MCQs on Agricultural Microbiology:
1. In the process of denitrification the involved bacteria is/are _________
(A) Thiobacillus denitrificans
(B) Micrococcus denitrificans
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
2. Nitrifying bacteria is/are ______
(A) Autotrophs
(B) Heterotrophs
(C) Biotrophs
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
3. Vitamin B2 is also known as ______
(A) Thiamine
(B) Riboflavin
(C) Pyridoxine
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
4. In which phase of microbial growth the bacteria increases in cell mass
(A) Log phase
(B) Lag phase
(C) Stationary phase
(D) Decline phase
Ans. B
5. In which phase cells divide at maximum rate permitted by the composition of the medium
(A) Log phase
(B) Lag phase
(C) Stationary phase
(D) Decline phase
Ans. A
6. The stage where viable cell number does not increase
(A) Log phase
(B) Lag phase
(C) Stationary phase
(D) Decline phase
Ans. D
7. Which is known as baker’s yeast
(A) Aspergillus niger
(B) Penicillium notatum
(C) Saccharomyces cerevisae
(D) Eremothecium gossypii (Ashbya gossypii)
Ans. C
8. Azospirillum is a ______ bacterium
(A) Symbiotic
(B) Asymbiotic
(C) Associative
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
9. Rhizobium is a _______ bacterium
(A) Symbiotic
(B) Asymbiotic
(C) Associative
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
10. Pseudomonas striata and Bacillus megaterium is known as _______
(A) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(B) PSB
(C) VAM
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
11. Algae used in production of single cell protein
(A) Aspergillus niger
(B) Penicillium notatum
(C) Spirulina maxima
(D) Eremothecium gossypii (Ashbya gossypii)
Ans. C
12. Prokaryotes range from _______ µm in diameter
(A) 0.05 to 0.1
(A) 0.05 to 1.0
(C) 0.5 to 2.0
(D) 2.0 to 20
Ans. C
13. Which of the following antibiotic blocks the peptidoglycan synthesis
(A) Kanamycin
(A) Erythromycin
(C) Penicillin
(D) Streptomycin
Ans. C
14. The study of algae is called _______
(A) Mycology
(B) Bacteriology
(C) Phycology
(D) Immunology
Ans. C
15. Mycoplasma lack which of the following cell structure
(A) DNA
(B) Cell wall
(C) RNA
(D) Ribosome
Ans. B
16. Barophilic means
(A) Microorganism lives at high temperature
(B) Microorganism lives at high pressure
(C) Microorganism lives at alkaline condition
(D) Microorganism lives at acidic condition
Ans. A
17. Most usable form of nitrogen
(A) Ammonia
(B) Nitrate
(C) Nitrite
(D) Nitrous oxide
Ans. B
18. The most numerous groups of microorganism found in soil is ______
(A) Fungus
(B) Protozoa
(C) Algae
(D) Bacteria
Ans. D
19. Free living bacteria that fix the atmospheric Nitrogen
(A) Nitrosomonas
(B) Nitrobacter
(C) Rhizobium
(D) Azotobacter
Ans. D
20. VAM is a ______
(A) Fungus
(B) Algae
(C) Bacteria
(D) Protozoa
Ans. A
2. MCQs on Entomology:
21. Central nervous system of insects arises as a thickening of _____
(A) Ectoderm
(B) Endoderm
(C) Mesoderm
(D) All of these
Ans. A
22. The phenomenon by which the immature insects are able to reproduce is known as _____
(A) Parthenogenesis
(B) Polyembryony
(C) Paedogenesis
(D) Castration
Ans. C
23. Nerve poisons act on the nervous system by _____
(A) Blocking Axons
(B) Inhibiting Ach E
(C) Blocking synapse
(D) Producing Acetylcholine
Ans. B
24. Control of insects by sterilization was first conceived by _____
(A) R.F. Chapman
(B) V.B. Wigglesworth
(C) E.F. Kipling
(D) Paul Mullar
Ans. C
25. Allomones are:
(A) Beneficial to the producer
(B) Beneficial to both
(C) Beneficial to the receiver
(D) None of these
Ans. A
26. The term ‘Paper factor’ refers to ________
(A) Insect feeding on paper
(B) Juvabione
(C) Ordinary paper
(D) Paper having Ecdysone
Ans. B
27. White grubs belongs to the Family:
(A) Scaraboaeidae
(B) Chrysomelidac
(C) Melolonthidae
(D) Cerambycidae
Ans. C
28. Pheromones are synthesized by _____
(A) Thoracic glands
(B) Neuro-secretary cells
(C) Glandular epidermal cells
(D) All of these
Ans. C
29. Insecticide having antagonistic effect with NPV is _____
(A) DDT
(B) Endosulfan
(C) Aldrin
(D) Malathion
Ans. D
30. Which of the following Orders of insects comprises parasitic insects:
(A) Hymenoptera
(B) Lepidoptera
(C) Thysanoptera
(D) Neuroptera
Ans. A
31. The type of Parthenogenesis where only males are produced:
(A) Arrhenotoky
(B) Amphitoky
(C) Thelytoky
(D) None of these
Ans. A
32. Token stimuli theory was postulated by ______
(A) House
(B) Frankel
(C) Painter
(D) Throsteinson
Ans. B
33. Which of the following is a larval-pupal parasitoid:
(A) Campoletis
(B) Cotesia
(C) Exorista
(D) Carcelia
Ans. D
34. Out of the following poisons which works as an anti-coagulant for the control of rats:
(A) Zinc phosphide
(B) Warfarin
(C) Strychmine
(D) Celphos
Ans. B
35. Which of the following insects does not belong to Order Lepidoptera:
(A) Groundnut leaf miner
(B) Pea leaf miner
(C) Citrus leaf miner
(D) None of these
Ans. B
36. Indian Institute of Natural Resins and Gums is located at _____
(A) Patna
(B) Coimbatore
(C) Cuttack
(D) Ranchi
Ans. D
37. Protein hydrolysate is used as an attractant for the control of _____
(A) Fruit fly
(B) Sawfly
(C) House fly
(D) Whitefly
Ans. A
38. Rodolia cardinalis has been successful in controlling:
(A) Apple wooly aphids
(B) Sugarcane shoot borer
(C) Cottony cushion scale
(D) Pink bollworm
Ans. C
39. Sticking type of legs are found in _________
(A) Honey bees
(B) House flies
(C) Lice
(D) Lac insects
Ans. B
40. Small apterous insects, compound eyes reduced or absent ectoparasites of birds and mammals are included in ________
(A) Strepsiptera
(B) Mallophaga
(C) Hymenoptera
(D) Diptera
Ans. B
41. Which of the following insects infests the grain in the field and then comes to storage:
(A) Ephestia cautela
(B) Sitotroga cerealella
(C) Tribolium castaneum
(D) All of these
Ans. B
42. The entomogcnous fungi tested under field conditions for pest control in India is ________
(A) Metarrhizium anisopliae
(B) Beauveria basiana
(C) Entomophthora virulenta
(D) All of these
Ans. D
43. Which of the following is a pupal parasitoid:
(A) Elasmus
(B) Xanthopimpla
(C) Tetrastichus
(D) All of these
Ans. B
44. Juvenile hormone is secreted by _____
(A) Corpora Cardiaca
(B) Corpora allata
(C) Protharacic glands
(D) Maxillary gland
Ans. B
45. The Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research is located at _____
(A) Coimbatore
(B) Kanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Patna
Ans. C
46. Weisman’s ring or Ring gland is present in order:
(A) Hymenoptera
(B) Lepidoptera
(C) Diptera
(D) Coleoptera
Ans. C
47. The damaging stage of pulse beetle is _____
(A) Adult
(B) Both adult & grub
(C) Grub
(D) Pupa
Ans. C
48. The caterpillars of Indarbela quadrinotata feed and damage the:
(A) Fruits
(B) Flowers
(C) Leaves
(D) Bark
Ans. D
49. The best method to control stored grain pests is by _____
(A) Fumigation
(B) Proper drying and storage
(C) Systemic insecticide
(D) Biological agents
Ans. A
50. The first transformation with delta-endotoxin gene from Bt was done in Belgium in 1985 in the crop:
(A) Paddy
(B) Tobacco
(C) Alfalfa
(D) Potato
Ans. B
51. The gland which produces pheromone in queen honey bee is ________
(A) Mandibular gland
(B) Labial gland
(C) Maxillary gland
(D) Pharyngeal gland
Ans. A
52. Ecdysone is produced by _____
(A) Corpora Cardiaca
(B) Corpora allata
(C) Protharacic glands
(D) Maxillary gland
Ans. C
53. The nozzle used for producing mist is _____
(A) Blast nozzle
(B) Kinetic energy nozzle
(C) Rotatory energy nozzle
(D) Annular nozzle
Ans. C
54. In solid cone nozzle, the solid cone of liquid is formed due to:
(A) Bigger size of the cap
(B) Central hole in swirl plate
(C) Bigger size of the orifice plate
(D) Smaller size of the strainer
Ans. B
55. Project Directorate of Biological control is located at _____
(A) Bangalore
(B) Lucknow
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Kanpur
Ans. A
56. Bacillus thuringeinsis is most effective at pH:
(A) 3 to 6
(B) 11 to 14
(C) 9 to 10
(D) None of these
Ans. C
57. Which of the following is the European species of honey bee:
(A) Apis dorsata
(B) Apis mellifera
(C) Apis indica
(D) Apis florea
Ans. B
58. Which of the following is parasitic protozoa attacking silkworm:
(A) Leptomonas pyrrhocoris
(B) Adeline tipulae
(C) Malpighamoeba mellifera
(D) Nosema bombycis
Ans. D
59. Which of the following bugs is a pest of brinjal:
(A) Painted bug
(B) Lace bug
(C) Plant bug
(D) Stink bug
Ans. B
60. Which of the following is a pest of sorghum belonging to Order Diptera:
(A) Chilo partellus
(B) Bagrada cruciferarum
(C) Rhopalosiphum maidis
(D) Atherigona soccata
Ans. D
3. MCQs on Agricultural Economics:
61. Which of the following curves cuts the AC curve at its lowest point
(A) AVC curve
(B) AFC curve
(C) Opportunity cost curve
(D) MC curve
Ans. A
62. Family and hired labour are examples of ________
(A) Complementary
(B) Substitutes
(C) Perfect substitutes
(D) Perfect complements
Ans. C
63. If the technology turns out to be inferior than the previous one, then the production function will shift
(A) Upwards shape
(B) Downwards
(C) Does not shift
(D) Changes the
Ans. B
64. Within the lines, the products are ________
(A) Complementary
(B) Supplementary
(C) Competitive
(D) Antagonistic
Ans. C
65. The support given in the form of export subsidies
(A) Green box
(B) Blue box
(C) Amber box
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
66. Unlike any other WTO agreement TRIPs agreement is covered by the Dispute Settlement Understanding
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partially true
(D) Partially false
Ans. B
67. Trademarks enable the owner to include imitations that confuse the public
(A) True
(B) False
(C) Partially true
(D) Partially false
Ans. B
68. The term ‘free trade’ refers to ______
(A) Trade is free in inter states
(B) Lifting of trade restrictions
(C) Trade is free within the country
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
69. Which of the following is the best method of evaluating the project based on rate of return criterion
(A) Pay-back period
(B) Net present value
(C) Net present worth
(D) Benefit cost ratio
Ans. D
70. Which of the following boxes of subsidies distort the trade
(A) Green box
(B) Blue box
(C) Amber box
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
71. Which of the following constitutes economic justification for GATT
(A) Employment of labour
(B) Protection of infant industries
(C) Doctrine of comparative cost
(D) Conservation of strategic raw materials
Ans. C
72. If NPW is higher, switching value is ________
(A) Lower
(B) Higher
(C) No relation
(D) Zero
Ans. B
73. IRR is the discount factor, at which BCR is _______
(A) Maximum
(B) Lower
(C) Zero
(D) One
Ans. D
74. In which of the following measures, time value of money is not taken into consideration
(A) PBP
(B) N/K
(C) IRR
(D) NPV
Ans. A
75. Which of the following is not a component of project cycle
(A) Conception
(B) Evaluation
(C) Preparation
(D) Maturity
Ans. D
76. Which of the following is an undiscounted measure of project appraisal
(A) Benefit cost ratio
(B) Payback period
(C) Internal rate of return
(D) Net present worth
Ans. B
77. ‘Giffen’ goods refer to _______
(A) Stock of goods
(B) Lack of goods
(C) Inferior goods
(D) Superior goods
Ans. C
78. Which of the following cost is subtracted from income (GI) to get the value of family labour income
(A) Cost A1
(B) Cost A2
(C) Cost B
(D) Cost C
Ans. C
79. Omitted explanatory variables will cause ________
(A) Auto correlation
(B) Multicollincarity
(C) Heteroscedasticity
(D) Quasi autocorrelation
Ans. D
80. Speculative demand, depends on ______
(A) Income
(B) Profit
(C) Interest rate
(D) Autonomous
Ans. C
4. MCQs on Agricultural Extension:
81. A, B, C is character of poster ‘B’ stands for _________
(A) Brevity
(B) Brief
(C) Bachelor
(D) Beyond
Ans. B
82. The poster used in demonstration should have a letter height of ________
(A) 0.5 inches
(B) 1 inches
(C) 1.5 inches
(D) 2.5 inches
Ans. C
83. Comprehensive information about a topic is given in _________
(A) Leaflet
(B) Folder
(C) Bulletin
(D) Newsletter
Ans. C
84. Specific/short information on a particular topic
(A) Leaflet
(B) Folder
(C) Bulletin
(D) Newsletter
Ans. A
85. How many number of cards in flash card
(A) 10-12
(B) 24-48
(C) 15-24
(D) 48-60
Ans. A
86. How many pages in bulletin
(A) 10-12
(B) 24-48
(C) 15-24
(D) 48-60
Ans. B
87. Single printed sheet of paper of big size, folded once or twice and gives essential information relating to particular topic is _______
(A) Leaflet
(B) Folder
(C) Bulletin
(D) Newsletter
Ans. B
88. Miniature newspaper in good quality paper, containing information relating to the activity and achievements of the organization is _______
(A) Leaflet
(B) Folder
(C) Bulletin
(D) Newsletter
Ans. D
89. The word entrepreneur is drive from which word
(A) Communis
(B) Entreprendre
(C) Entrepren
(D) Enterdepend
Ans. B
90. Relative speed with which an innovation is adopted by members of a social system is called _______
(A) Rate of adoption
(B) Innovativeness
(C) Adoption
(D) Diffusion
Ans. A
91. Rejection occurs at ______
(A) Decision stage
(B) Implementation
(C) Knowledge
(D) Persuasion
Ans. A
92. Discontinuance occurs at ______
(A) Decision stage
(B) Implementation
(C) Confirmation
(D) Persuasion
Ans. C
93. Re-invention occurs at ________
(A) Decision stage
(B) Implementation
(C) Confirmation
(D) Persuasion
Ans. B
94. A series of cards presented before an audience one by one to tell a complete story is called ______
(A) Leaflet
(B) Folder
(C) Bulletin
(D) Flash card
Ans. D
95. Which of the following adopters are few in number
(A) Early adopters
(B) Leggards
(C) Innovator
(D) Late majority
Ans. C
96. The last to adopt an innovation in a social system
(A) Early adopters
(B) Leggards
(C) Innovator
(D) Late majority
Ans. B
97. Most respectable adopters category is ______
(A) Early adopters
(B) Leggards
(C) Innovator
(D) Late majority
Ans. A
98. Skeptical adopters category is ______
(A) Early adopters
(B) Leggards
(C) Innovator
(D) Late majority
Ans. D
99. A decision to make full use of an innovation as the best course of action available is _________
(A) Diffusion
(B) Adoption
(C) Communication
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
100. Diffusion includes how many elements
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 4
(D) 8
Ans. C
5. MCQs on Agricultural Statistics:
101. Diagram are tools of ______
(A) Collection of data
(B) Analysis of data
(C) Presentation of data
(D) Summarization of data
Ans. C
102. Frequency of a variable is always
(A) In percentage
(B) An integer
(C) A fraction
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
103. Which of the following statement is not correct
(A) The bars in a histogram touch each
(B) Multiple bar diagram also exist
(C) The bar in a column chart touch each other
(D) There are bar diagram which are known as broken bar diagram
Ans. C
104. With the help of histogram we can prepare
(A) Frequency polygon
(B) Frequency curve
(C) Frequency distribution
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
105. The arithmetic mean of a set of 50 numbers is 38. If two numbers of the set namely 45 and 55 are discarded, the mean of remaining observations is ________
(A) 38.5
(B) 37.5
(C) 36.5
(D) 39.5
Ans. B
106. The arithmetic mean of the n numbers of a series is x̅. The sum of first (n-1) term is k, then the nth number is ______
(A) x̅ – k
(B) x̅ – nk
(C) n x̅ – k
(D) n(x̅ – k)
Ans. C
107. A group of 10 items has arithmetic mean 6, if the arithmetic mean of 4 of these items is 7.5, then the mean of remaining items is ______
(A) 6.5
(B) 6.0
(C) 5.5
(D) 5.0
Ans. D
108. The mean of a set of number is x̅. If each number increased by k, then the mean of new set is ______
(A) x̅ + k
(B) x̅ – k
(C) kx̅
(D) x̅/k
Ans. A
109. The mean of a set of number is x̅. If each number multiplied by k, then the mean of new set is ______
(A) x̅ + k
(B) x̅ – k
(C) kx̅
(D) x̅/k
Ans. C
110. For a set of values of a discrete variable, the sum of absolute values of deviations from the median
(A) Minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Neither maximum nor minimum
(D) None of these
Ans. A
111. Which of the following represent median
(A) First quartile
(B) Fiftieth percentile
(C) Sixth decile
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
112. If the grouped data has open ended classes, one cannot calculate
(A) Mode
(B) Median
(C) Mean
(D) Quartile
Ans. C
113. Geometric mean is a good measure of central value if the data are ________
(A) Categorical
(B) Ordinal scale
(C) In ratio or proportions
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
114. To fine rate of population growth which measure is appropriate?
(A) Median
(B) Mode
(C) Harmonic mean
(D) Geometric mean
Ans. D
115. Extreme values has no effect on ________
(A) Median
(B) Mode
(C) Harmonic mean
(D) Geometric mean
Ans. A
116. Harmonic mean is better than other means if the data are for __________
(A) Heights or length
(B) Binary values like 0 and 1
(C) Ratio or proportions
(D) Speed or rate
Ans. C
117. The correct relationship between AM, GM and HM is ________
(A) AM = GM = HM
(B) AM < GM < HM
(C) AM > GM > HM
(D) AM > HM > GM
Ans. C
118. A man travels at a speed of 20 km/h and then returns at a speed of 30 km/h. His average speed of the whole journey is ______
(A) 25 km/h
(B) 24 km/h
(C) 24.5 km/h
(D) None of these
Ans. B
119. Quartile deviation is nearly equal to ______
(A) 3/2 □
(B) 2/3 □
(C) □
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
120. Which measure of dispersion can be calculated in case of open end intervals?
(A) Standard deviation
(B) Quartile deviation
(C) Coefficient of variation
(D) Range
Ans. B
121. If the observation of a raw data, whose variance is □□, multiplied by k, then the variance of the new set is ______
(A) □2 □2
(B) □2 + □2
(C) □ + □2
(D) □2
Ans. A
122. Quartile deviation is equal to ______
(A) Inter quartile range
(B) Double the inter quartile range
(C) Half of the inter quartile range
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
123. The variance of first natural numbers is ________
Ans. A
124. Let X and Y be two variable with the same variance and U and V be two variables such that U = X + Y and V = X – Y then Cov (U, V) is equal to _______
(A) Cov (X, Y)
(B) +1
(C) -1
(D) 0
Ans. D
125. Greater is the difference between mean and mode, skewness will be ______
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Depends on variance
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
126. If each value of a series is multiplied by a constant ‘c’, the coefficient of variation as compared to original value is ________
(A) Increased
(B) Decreased
(C) Unaltered
(D) Zero
Ans. C
127. For a negatively skewed distribution, the correct inequality is _________
(A) Mean < mode
(B) Mode < median
(C) Mean < median
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
128. The extreme values in a negatively skewed distribution lies in the
(A) Middle
(B) Left tail
(C) Right tail
(D) Anywhere
Ans. B
129. Bowley’s coefficient of skewness lies between
(A) 0 < Sk < + 1
(B) -1 < Sk < 0
(C) -1 < Sk < +1
(D) -∞ < Sk < + ∞
Ans. C
130. Pearson coefficient of skewness lies between
(A) 0 < Sk < + 3
(B) -3 < Sk < +3
(C) -3 < Sk < 0
(D) -∞ < Sk < + ∞
Ans. B
131. In case of leptokurtic distribution
(A) □2 > 3
(B) □2 < 3
(C) □2 = 3
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
132. The test statistic for testing the significance of correlation coefficient is ________
Ans. B
133. The statistic t for testing the hypothesis □ = □ based on a sample of size n from a bivariate population has d.f.
(A) n
(B) n-1
(C) n-2
(D) n-3
Ans. C
134. If correlation coefficient between two random variable X and Y be negative, than which of the following statement is false
(A) The regression coefficient byx and bxy are both negative
(B) The regression of Y on X is linear and the line is downward sloping
(C) E(XY) < E(X)E(Y)
(D) The correlation coefficient between X and Y is positive
Ans. D
135. The correlation coefficient r between x and y is 0.5, their covariance is 16. If the standard deviation of x is 4, then the standard deviation of y is equal to?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 64
Ans. B
136. Let r be the correlation coefficient between two variable x and y. if the variable x is multiplied by 3 and the variable y is increased by 2, then the correlation coefficient of the new set of variables is ________
(A) r
(B) 3r
(C) 3r + 2
(D) 3r – 2
Ans. A
137. Spareman’s rank correlation will be appropriate when data are ________
(A) Quantitative
(B) Qualitative
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Ordinal
Ans. B
138. Where quantitative measurement is difficult, correlation is calculated by ________
(A) Variance-covariance method
(B) Cannot be measured
(C) Rank difference method
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
6. MCQs on Farm Machinery and Power Engineering:
139. Of the total heat generated from IC engine, the quantity of heat utilized by engine is about
(A) 20-26%
(B) 26-30%
(C) 30-40%
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
140. In IC engine the cowling is associated to __________
(A) Piston
(B) Crankcase
(C) Cylinder
(D) Crankshaft
Ans. C
141. At which temperature in petrol engine thermostat valve starts open and fully open
(A) 61°C and 72°C
(B) 71°C and 82°C
(C) 81°C and 92°C
(D) Both A and B
Ans. B
142. At which temperature in diesel engine thermostat valve starts open and fully open
(A) 61°C and 72°C
(B) 71°C and 82°C
(C) 82°C and 88°C
(D) Both A and B
Ans. C
143. In bellows type thermostat valve, the liquid filled in vacuum is __________
(A) Alcohol
(B) Sprit
(C) Methane
(D) Ethane
Ans. A
144. An agricultural tractor is a _________
(A) Self-propelled power
(B) Prime mover unit
(C) Traction engine
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
145. Tractor engine or traction engine was invented by ________
(A) Rudolph diesel (1890)
(B) George H. Harrish (1890)
(C) J. Watt (1860)
(D) N. Hudson (1896)
Ans. B
146. Tractor manufacturing was started in India in 1960-61 by _________
(A) HMT
(B) Hindustan Tractors Ltd.
(C) M/S Eicher Good Earth
(D) Good Year Earth
Ans. C
147. Crawler tractor is also known as ________
(A) Track type
(B) Both A and C
(C) Chain type
(D) Wheel type
Ans. B
148. For the farm area of 40 ha land, under double cropping pattern tractor size should be _________
(A) 20-25 hp
(B) 30-35 hp
(C) 40-45 hp
(D) 50-55 hp
Ans. B
149. The crankshaft and rear axle of tractor, are attached at _________
(A) 30°
(B) 60°
(C) Right angle to each other
(D) 120°
Ans. C
150. Dog clutch is mainly used in _________
(A) Tractors
(B) Stationery engines
(C) Scooter
(D) Power tillers
Ans. D
151. The arrangement in tractor, which permits one of the rear wheel of to rotate slower or faster, is called __________
(A) Clutch
(B) Differential
(C) P.T.O.
(D) Crankshaft
Ans. B
152. Hydraulic brake works on the principle of __________
(A) Bernoulli’s Law
(B) Newton’s Law
(C) Ohm’s Law
(D) Pascal’s Law
Ans. D
153. In hydraulic brake system of tractors, the pressure in pump varies from ______
(A) 150-175 kg/cm2
(B) 40-75 kg/cm2
(C) 10-30 kg/cm2
(D) Both A and B
Ans. A
154. As per ASAE standard, the PTO speed under operating load is equal to _________
(A) 540 ± 10 rpm
(B) Both A and C
(C) 1000 ± 10 rpm
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
155. Inflation pressure of rear wheel of tractor varies from __________
(A) 0.8 to 1.2 kg/cm2
(B) 1.5 to 2.5 kg/cm2
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
156. Inflation pressure of front wheel of tractor varies from ________
(A) 0.8 to 1.2 kg/cm2
(B) 1.5 to 2.5 kg/cm2
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
157. Brake testing of tractor is done at a speed of __________
(A) 10kmph
(B) 15 kmph
(C) 25 kmph
(D) 30 kmph
Ans. C
158. Pressure ranges in power tiller tyre
(A) 0.8 to 1.2 kg/cm2
(B) 1.5 to 2.5 kg/cm2
(C) 1.1 to 1.4 kg/cm2
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
159. For the farm area of 40 ha land, under single cropping pattern tractor size should be _________
(A) 20-25 hp
(B) 30-35 hp
(C) 40-45 hp
(D) 50-55 hp
Ans. A
160. The working life of tractor is at about _______
(A) 15000 hours
(B) 10000 hours
(C) 5000 hours
(D) 8000 hours
Ans. B
161. Who is the father of tillage?
(A) Jethro Tull
(B) Mason Vaugh
(C) George Hudson
(D) Charles W. Hart
Ans. A
162. The name of book written by Jethro Tull
(A) Elements of Agricultural Engg.
(B) Operations in Tillage Practices
(C) Horse Hoe Husbandry
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
163. The operation performed to open up the cultivable land with a view to prepare seed bed for growing crops is known as ________
(A) Secondary tillage
(B) Zero tillage
(C) Conservation tillage
(D) Primary tillage
Ans. D
164. Which one is the combination of primary tillage implements?
(A) MB plough and Disc harrow
(B) Desi plough and Land Leveler
(C) Disc plough and Rotavator
(D) Chisel plough and Subsoiler
Ans. D
165. Functions of MB plough are __________
(A) Cutting the soil
(B) Pulverizing the soil
(C) Lifting and turning the soil
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
166. Mould Board of MB plough is made of _________
(A) Chilled cost iron
(B) Cost iron
(C) Soft center steel
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
167. Frog of MB plough are made of ___________
(A) Chilled cost iron
(B) Cost iron
(C) Soft center steel
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
168. The forward end of cutting edge of share, which actually penetrates into the soil, called as __________
(A) Gunnel
(B) Wing of share
(C) Heel
(D) Point of share
Ans. D
169. In grassy lands, best type of Mould Board suited
(A) Slat type
(B) Sod or breaker type
(C) Stubble type
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
170. The function of jointer is to _______
(A) Cut small ribbon like furrow slice
(B) Cut grasses of trashes
(C) Reduce the draft of plough
(D) Absorb the side movement
Ans. A
171. Ploughing depth of MB plough varies from ______
(A) 10-15 cm
(B) 20-25 cm
(C) 30-35 cm
(D) 45-100 cm
Ans. B
172. In MB plough the furrow width can be increased by _______
(A) Increasing the horizontal suction
(B) Decreasing the vertical suction
(C) Reducing side draft
(D) Sharpening the share
Ans. A
173. Pulverization of soil is measured by _______
(A) Cone Penetrometer
(B) Hygrometer
(C) Leveler
(D) Sprit Level
Ans. A
174. Field ploughing with reversible type MB plough there is no
(A) Back furrow
(B) Both A and C
(C) Dead furrow
(D) None of them
Ans. B
175. In disc plough disc angle varies from _________
(A) 15-25°
(B) 20-25°
(C) 42-45°
(D) 30-40°
Ans. C
176. Angle between the plane of cutting edge of disc and the direction of travel is called _________
(A) Disc angle (42-45°)
(B) Both A and C
(C) Tilt angle (15-25°)
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
177. An open trench left in between two adjacent strips of land after ploughing is finished, called __________
(A) Back furrow
(B) Open furrow
(C) Dead furrow
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
178. Unploughed land left and each end of the field for turning of tractor is called ______
(A) Back furrow
(B) Open furrow
(C) Dead furrow
(D) Head land
Ans. D