200 + Agriculture Questions and Answers for Students!
1. Crushing of food in insects is done by _____
(A) Rectal papilla
(B) Crop
(C) Proventriculus
(D) All of these
Ans. C
2. Insects have evolved from ______
(A) Annelids
(B) Reptiles
(C) Molluscs
(D) Fishes
Ans. A
3. Diflubenzuron is a derivative of _____
(A) Difloro compounds
(B) Urea
(C) Dithiophosphoric acid
(D) Phosphonic acid
Ans. B
4. Fore-gut is lined internally by _____
(A) Peritrophic membrane
(B) Intima
(C) Epithelial membrane
(D) Taenidia
Ans. B
5. In which Order of insects, females have no pupal stage but males have:
(A) Mallophaga
(B) Ephemeroptera
(C) Strepsiptera
(D) Dictyoptera
Ans. C
6. Dasineura lini is a pest of _____
(A) Castor
(B) Sesamum
(C) Ground nut
(D) Linseed
Ans. D
7. Indicate which represents the analogous group:
(A) Wings of butterfly and birds
(B) Forewings of moth and fins of fish
(C) Fore legs of horse and arms of man
(D) Hind wings of butterfly and legs of bird
Ans. A
8. The prothoracicotropic hormone is secreted by _____
(A) Prothoracic gland
(B) Corpora cardiaca
(C) Corpora allata
(D) Neuro-secretory cells
Ans. D
9. Name the fumigant which is used for killing insects in storage as well as for plant fumigation:
(A) Ethylene dibromide
(B) Aluminium phosphide
(C) Ethyl bromide
(D) EDCT mixture
Ans. C
10. Indicate the correct sequence through which the following insecticides came into use:
(A) BHC, Rotenone, Malathion and Lead arsenate
(B) BHC, Rotenone, Lead and arsenate Malathion
(C) Lead arsenate, Rotenone, BHC and Malathion
(D) Rotenone, BHC, Lead arsenate and Malathion
Ans. C
11. Insecticides banned by the Government of India for agricultural use:
(A) Ethyl parathion
(B) BHC
(C) Azinphos
(D) All of these
Ans. D
12. Pheromones are also known as _____
(A) Antibiotics
(B) Hormones
(C) Ecto-hormones
(D) Attractants
Ans. C
13. Order Odonata includes:
(A) Mayflies
(B) Scorpionfly
(C) Stoneflies
(D) Damselfly
Ans. D
14. Crypto-nephridial condition of Malpighian tubules is found in _____
(A) Collembola
(B) Hemiptera
(C) Coleoptera
(D) Diptera
Ans. C
15. Juvenile hormone is secreted by _________
(A) Corpora allata
(B) Protocerebrum
(C) Corpora cardiaca
(D) Tritocerebrum
Ans. A
16. Hamulate type of wing coupling is found in ______
(A) Butterfly
(B) Locust
(C) House fly
(D) Honey bee
Ans. D
17. Johnston’s organ is found in _________
(A) Antennae
(B) Legs
(C) Wings
(D) Cerci
Ans. A
18. Entry of sperm into the egg takes place through:
(A) Micropyle
(B) Aeropyle
(C) Hydropyle
(D) None of these
Ans. A
19. Tracheal tubes do not collapse due to the presence of __________
(A) Air sacs
(B) Taenidia
(C) Tracheoles
(D) Spiracles
Ans. B
20. The magnitude of membrane potential at rest across an axonic membrane is ______
(A) + 70 mv
(B) 100mv
(C) – 70 mv
(D) – 100 mv
Ans. C
21. Primitive type of venetion similar to fossil insects is refereed as _____
(A) Pterostigma
(B) Retinaculam
(C) Archedictyon
(D) Frenulam
Ans. C
22. The process by which one segment is added after each of the three moults in Order Protura is known as ______
(A) Anamorphosis
(B) Metamorphosis
(C) Ecomorphosis
(D) None of these
Ans. A
23. Type of wing coupling apparatus in honey bees is _____
(A) Frenulate
(B) Hamulate
(C) Jugate
(D) Amplexiform
Ans. B
24. Name the Order of insects with highest number of described species:
(A) Lepidoptera
(B) Coleoptera
(C) Hymenoptera
(D) Hemiptera
Ans. B
25. The hormone responsible for pupal-adult ecdysis is _________
(A) Ecdysone
(B) Bursicon
(C) Eclosion hormone
(D) Juvenile hormone
Ans. C
26. Family labour income is equal to _________
(A) Gross income – Cost B
(B) Gross income – Cost A1
(C) Gross income – Cost A2
(D) Gross income – Cost C
Ans. A
27. Marginal farmers are those farmers whose land holding is up to _________
(A) 0.5 ha
(B) 1.0 ha
(C) 2 ha
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
28. A market in which goods are exchanged for money immediately after the sale is called ________
(A) Forward market
(B) Secular market
(C) Short period market
(D) Spot market
Ans. D
29. Shadow prices are also known as ______
(A) Current Prices
(B) Market Prices
(C) Accounting Prices
(D) Shut down Prices
Ans. C
30. Regional Rural Bank is sponsored by ______
(A) Scheduled bank
(B) RBI
(C) NABARD
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
31. Elasticity of production in the first zone of production function is ______
(A) Greater than one
(B) Less than one
(C) Infinity
(D) Equal to one
Ans. A
32. The test ratio can be derived from the balance sheet is _______
(A) Operating ratio
(B) Fixed ratio
(C) Current ratio
(D) Gross ratio
Ans. B
33. Depreciation is a ______
(A) Cash cost
(B) Supplementary Cost
(C) Fixed cost
(D) Non-cash cost
Ans. C
34. Which type of market condition is observed in the kinked demand curve?
(A) Oligopoly
(B) Duopoly
(C) Monopoly
(D) Monopsony
Ans. A
35. The law impaling “Supply creates its own demand” was given by ______
(A) Keynes
(B) Say
(C) Marshall
(D) Recardo
Ans. B
36. WTO came into existence in ________
(A) 1990
(B) 1995
(C) 2001
(D) 2005
Ans. B
37. The production possibilities frontier shows _______
(A) Maximum production from given resources
(B) Production from given resources is limited
(C) Choosing to consume one implies sacrificing the other
(D) Producing more public goods reduces supply of private goods
Ans. A
38. When a new variety of crop is introduced, which farm management approach is appropriate?
(A) Complete budgeting
(B) Non-budgeting
(C) Partial budgeting
(D) Programme planning
Ans. C
39. The borrower cannot sell but use an asset till the loan rapid
(A) Mortgage
(B) Pledge
(C) Hypothecation
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
40. According to Harrod Domar model growth is directly related to ______
(A) K/O ratio and
(B) Saving and K/O ratio inversely related to saving
(C) Saving and inversely related to K/O ratio
(D) Inversely to saving and K/O ratio
Ans. C
41. In a amortized decreasing plan, the principal
(A) Remains fixed
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Decreases along with interest
Ans. D
42. The income elasticity of agriculture commodities is ________
(A) Perfect elastic
(B) Perfect inelastic
(C) Comparatively inelastic
(D) Comparatively elastic
Ans. B
43. Net nation product is the difference between the Gross National Product and _______
(A) Indirect tax
(B) Depreciation
(C) Subsidies
(D) Gross Domestic Product
Ans. B
44. Cause and effect relationship is called _______
(A) Applied Science
(B) Normative Science
(C) Positive Science
(D) Physical Science
Ans. C
45. Risk in agriculture can be mitigated by which type of farming
(A) Corporate farming
(B) Mixed farming
(C) Specialized farming
(D) Contract farming
Ans. B
46. The biggest nationalized bank is _______
(A) Punjab National Bank
(B) Canara Bank
(C) Allahabad Bank
(D) SBI
Ans. D
47. First Cooperative Societies Act was passed in the year
(A) 1904
(B) 1901
(C) 1919
(D) 1947
Ans. A
48. CRAFICARD committee recommended the establishment of ________
(A) RBI
(B) NABARD
(C) ARDC
(D) AFC
Ans. B
49. From which of the following, farmer cannot directly avail loan
(A) PACS
(B) DCMS
(C) LAMPS
(D) ARDC
Ans. D
50. The Law of diminishing return is otherwise called as principle of _______
(A) Added returns and Added costs
(B) Average returns and Average costs
(C) Gross returns and Gross costs
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
51. Nilokheri experiment started in 1948, which is started by ________
(A) Thakusr Das
(B) S.K. Dey
(C) Albert Mayor
(D) T. Prakashan
Ans. B
52. According to use result demonstration is which type of communication method
(A) Individual method
(B) Group method
(C) Mass method
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
53. Toll free no of Kisan Call Centre
(A) 18001801552
(B) 18001551550
(C) 18001801551
(D) 18004251556
Ans. C
54. Which is not an element of diffusion
(A) Time
(B) Social system
(C) Channel
(D) Communication
Ans. D
55. Venturesome is characteristic of which adopters categories
(A) Innovators
(B) Leggards
(C) Late majority
(D) Early adopters
Ans. A
56. The term ‘Entrepreneur’ is a ______ word
(A) Latin
(B) French
(C) Greek
(D) Roman
Ans. B
57. Who first used the term ‘Entrepreneur’
(A) Max webber
(B) Peter Drucker
(C) Ricahard Cantilon
(D) Schumpeter
Ans. C
58. The person who leaves the ventures as soon as venture is created are called
(A) Managerial entrepreneur
(B) Innovative entrepreneur
(C) Mobile entrepreneur
(D) Empire builders
Ans. C
59. The persons who prefer to continue in the same venture by transforming themselves to fit the changing demands known as (Ex. Md. Yunus founder of Gramin Bank, Bangladesh)
(A) Managerial entrepreneur
(B) Innovative entrepreneur
(C) Mobile entrepreneur
(D) Empire builders
Ans. A
60. Ratan Tata and Dhiru Bhai Ambani are example of which type of entrepreneur
(A) Managerial entrepreneur
(B) Innovative entrepreneur
(C) Mobile entrepreneur
(D) Empire builders
Ans. D
61. SWOT is basically tool for
(A) Decision making
(B) Motivating
(C) Leading
(D) Controlling
Ans. A
62. The word ‘management’ has its root in
(A) Greek
(B) Latin
(C) French
(D) Sanskrit
Ans. C
63. Which kind of management skill is most important or essential for people working at top position is
(A) Technical skill
(B) Conceptual skill
(C) Clerical skill
(D) Leadership skill
Ans. B
64. ‘POSDCORB’ as management function given by
(A) Urwick
(B) Shail
(C) Anita
(D) Gullick and Urwick
Ans. D
65. “Lab to land programme” in India was started on the golden jubilee celebration of
(A) IARI
(B) Manage
(C) ICAR
(D) NIESBUD
Ans. C
66. Single window system was
(A) NAIP
(B) ATIC
(C) ATMA
(D) NATP
Ans. B
67. “Betting on strong horse” is slogan of _________
(A) IAAP
(B) HYVP
(C) IADP
(D) IRDP
Ans. C
68. At which place, R.N. Tagore started his work for rural reconstruction
(A) Vardha
(B) Shantiniketan
(C) Pune
(D) Sevagram
Ans. B
69. Marthandam project was started under the a spices of YMCA by ______
(A) F.L. Bryne
(B) Albert Mayer
(C) S.K. Dey
(D) Spencer hatch
Ans. D
70. Nilokheri project was also called _________
(A) Mazdoor Manzil
(B) Kishan Manzil
(C) Mazdoor Madad
(D) Mazdoor Kishan Manzil
Ans. A
71. Which is not an element of diffusion
(A) Innovation
(B) Social System
(C) Communication
(D) Channel
Ans. C
72. Innovation decision process given by _______
(A) Berlo
(B) Leela Mukharji
(C) E.M. Roger
(D) Etlin
Ans. C
73. Seeing is believing is principle of _______
(A) Training
(B) Lecture
(C) Method demonstration
(D) Result demonstration
Ans. D
74. Use and form classification given by _______
(A) Wilson and Gallup
(B) Pooja and Kent
(C) J.P. Leagans
(D) Jams Stuart
Ans. A
75. Method demonstration works on the principles of __________
(A) Learning by believing
(B) Learning by Teaching
(C) Seeing and doing
(D) Learning by doing
Ans. D
76. The size of circular sample plot should be of _________
(A) 0.05 ha
(B) 0.03 ha
(C) 0.02 ha
(D) 0.4 ha
Ans. A
77. When the crop density is 1.5 then it is known as _________
(A) Over stock
(B) Full stock
(C) Under stock
(D) All of these
Ans. D
78. The tree species for which multiple yield table is prepared in India is ________
(A) Delonix regia
(B) Cedrus deodara
(C) Populus deltoides
(D) Bombex ceiba
Ans. B
79. The age of felled trees can be determine by the method of _________
(A) Branch analysis
(B) Girth analysis
(C) Stump analysis
(D) All of these
Ans. C
80. Site quality concept was given by __________
(A) Hirata
(B) Bitterlich
(C) Peterson
(D) Brandis
Ans. C
81. Horizontal point sampling was developed by _________
(A) Stenley
(B) Peterson
(C) Chaturvedi
(D) Bitterlich
Ans. C
82. Yield table is not applicable to __________
(A) Even aged forest
(B) Uneven aged forest
(C) Mixed forest
(D) Pure forest
Ans. B
83. The haga altimeter measures _________
(A) Diameter
(B) Taper
(C) Height
(D) Volume
Ans. B
84. Selection of sample trees should not be less than
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
Ans. D
85. Quarter girth formula is ________
(A) (g/4)2 x L
(B) (g/4)2 x L
(C) (g/2)2 x L
(D) (g/3)2 x L
Ans. A
86. Distance between ground and crown-point is known as __________
(A) Crown height
(B) Crown length
(C) Bole height
(D) Bole length
Ans. C
87. The DBH of a leaning tree in sloping ground is measured in __________
(A) Sloping side
(B) Uphill side
(C) Lean side
(D) All of these
Ans. B
88. When the CAI is equal the MAI, the MAI is ___________
(A) Stationary
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) None of these
Ans. A
89. The Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM) is located at __________
(A) Jhansi
(B) Dehradun
(C) Jabalpur
(D) Bhopal
Ans. D
90. Indian Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in the year
(A) 1947
(B) 1972
(C) 1988
(D) 1990
Ans. B
91. A plan of operation for the management of the forest is known as __________
(A) Working plan
(B) Working circle
(C) Forest management
(D) Forest plan
Ans. A
92. Highest authority of forest in a state is __________
(A) ACF
(B) RO
(C) DFO
(D) PCCF
Ans. D
93. Joint forest planning and management scheme was passed in NFP of __________
(A) 1988
(B) 1999
(C) 2008
(D) 2012
Ans. A
94. Working plan is generally prepared for the period
(A) 5 year
(B) 8 year
(C) 10 year
(D) 15 year
Ans. C
95. MAI of Indian forest is __________
(A) 1.5 m3/ha
(B) 2.5 m3/ha
(C) 3.5 m3/ha
(D) 4.5 m3/ha
Ans. B
96. The CAI and MAI was cross each other at the
(A) Rotation age
(B) Even age
(C) Uneven age
(D) All of these
Ans. A
97. The first National Forest Policy was formulated based on the recommendation given by __________
(A) Dr. Brandis
(B) Dr. Voelker
(C) Dr. Harting
(D) Dr. Thomas
Ans. B
98. The national park and wildlife sanctuaries of India arc declared by _________
(A) Govt. of India
(B) State Govt.
(C) Forest department
(D) Forest minister
Ans. B
99. Unit of working plan is __________
(A) Compartment
(B) Working circle
(C) Beat
(D) Division
Ans. D
100. Smallest functional territorial unit is ___________
(A) Working compartment
(B) Compartment
(C) Beat
(D) Working circle
Ans. C
101. In N-linked glycosylation, the oligosaccharide chain is attached to protein by ______
(A) Asparagines
(B) Arginine
(C) Serine
(D) Threonine
Ans. A
102. Genetically engineered bacteria are being used in commercial production of ______
(A) Melatonin
(B) Human insulin
(C) Testoteron
(D) Thyroxine
Ans. B
103. The widely known Watson Crick structure of DNA is representative of which structural form of DNA double helix
(A) A-form
(B) B-form
(C) C-form
(D) Z-form
Ans. B
104. The following are features of DNA replication except
(A) Semi-conservative
(B) Semi-discontinuous
(C) Unidirectional
(D) Chain growth in the 5′ to 3′ direction
Ans. C
105. Which of the following does not have introns
(A) DNA
(B) Non-processed pseudo genes
(C) Processed m RNA
(D) Primary RNA transcript
Ans. C
106. The variant fragment that distinguish one individual from another one is called ______
(A) Variant fragment
(B) Differing fragment
(C) Marking fragment
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
107. If the molar amount of G in a DNA sample is 20%, what is the molar amount of T in the sample?
(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 30%
(D) 60%
Ans. C
108. If the strand of DNA has 35 nucleotide how many phosphodiester bonds would exist?
(A) 34
(B) 24
(C) 35
(D) 70
Ans. C
109. Which stop codon has been found to encode selenocysteine
(A) UAA
(B) AGA
(C) UAG
(D) UGA
Ans. D
110. A gene that has multiple phenotypic effect
(A) Polygenic
(B) Holandric
(C) Polymorphic
(D) Pleiotropic
Ans. D
111. Which technique would be used to amplify viral RNA in a patient’s blood specimen?
(A) Antisense engineering
(B) Transcription-mediated amplification
(C) A knockin gene
(D) Traditional PCR
Ans. B
112. Which of the following would be used to study which genes are transcribed in a particular cell line
(A) Transcription mediate amplification
(B) Microarray comparative genomic hybridization
(C) DNA variation screening
(D) Gene expression profiling
Ans. B
113. Which of the following is an example of site-specific recombination
(A) Insertion of a transposon into a new site in a genome
(B) Integration of bacteriophage λ genome into the E. coli chromosome
(C) Gene conversion
(D) Crossing-over during meiosis
Ans. B
114. Which of the following events could lead to the evolution of a new gene that contains exons from two or more other genes
(A) Domain duplication
(B) Gene conversion
(C) Domain shuffling
(D) Gene duplication
Ans. C
115. Which of the followings does NOT need a primer in order to function?
(A) DNA Pol I
(B) DNA Pol III
(C) DNA Pol II
(D) RNA polymerase
Ans. D
116. The only nucleoside with base to sugar C-C linkage is ________
(A) Thymidine
(B) Cytidine
(C) Pseudouridine
(D) Adenosine
Ans. C
117. Repressor molecules bind to the
(A) Promoter
(B) Operator
(C) Enhancer
(D) Hormone response element
Ans. B
118. Which of the following enzyme(s) can remove or insert supercoil twists into circular DNA
(A) Topoisomerases
(B) Spliceosomes
(C) DNA Pol II
(D) Helicase
Ans. A
119. Which of the following m RNAs lack poly A tail
(A) Ferritin
(B) Insulin
(C) Interferon
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
120. In protein synthesis which out of the following is a termination Codon?
(A) UAU
(B) UGA
(C) UAC
(D) UGG
Ans. B
121. All are true for DNA polymerase except one
(A) Has exonuclease activity
(B) Edits as it synthesizes
(C) Works only in 5’to 3′ direction
(D) Synthesizes RNA primer to initiate DNA synthesis.
Ans. D
122. BRCA-1 is associated with which cancer
(A) Breast
(B) Thyroid
(C) Nerve
(D) Leukemia
Ans. A
123. Preserving germplasm in frozen state is ________
(A) Cryopreservation
(B) In situ preservation
(C) Cold storage
(D) Vernalisation
Ans. C
124. The study of all the proteins coded by the genome is called _______
(A) Proteome
(B) Genome
(C) Proteomics
(D) Protein formation
Ans. C
125. How are so many different antibodies produced from fewer than 300 major genes?
(A) Recombination, Deletions, and Random assortment of DNA segments
(B) Alternative splicing mechanisms
(C) Formation of polyproteins
(D) Gene duplication
Ans. A
126. Most common cellulose fermenters in nature are the member of ________
(A) Clostridium
(B) Azotobacter
(C) Frankia
(D) Fusarium
Ans. D
127. Which organism prefer dry condition
(A) Actinomycetes
(B) Fungi
(C) Bacteria
(D) Protozoa
Ans. C
128. Who discovered the microscope?
(A) Louis Pasteur
(B) John Needham
(C) Leeuwenhoek
(D) Francesco Reddy
Ans. C
129. ______ finally disproved the spontaneous generation theory
(A) Louis Pasteur
(B) John Needham
(C) Leeuwenhoek
(D) Francesco Reddy
Ans. D
130. ______ is absent in prokaryotes
(A) Capsule
(B) Plasma membrane
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans. D
131. Serial dilution technique was introduced by ______
(A) Jhoseph Lister
(B) Francesco Reddy
(C) Leeuwenhoek
(D) John Needham
Ans. A
132. Autoclaving is usually done at 15 lb per sq inch for 30 min at
(A) 72°C
(B) 101°C
(C) 211°C
(D) 121°C
Ans. D
133. Who is known as father of vaccination?
(A) Alexander Fleming
(B) Edward Jenner
(C) Leeuwenhoek
(D) Louis Pasteur
Ans. B
134. The process of gram staining is given by ______
(A) Karl Landsteiner
(B) Christian Gram
(C) Ivanovsky
(D) Burril
Ans. B
135. Which are the fixative used in staining
(A) Heat
(B) Mercurous chloride
(C) Alcohol
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
136. Microscope was invented by _______
(A) Robert Koch
(B) Leeuwenhock
(C) Paul Ehrlich
(D) Richard Petri
Ans. B
137. Moderate temperature loving bacteria is comes under
(A) Themophillic
(B) Mesophillic
(C) Psycrophillic
(D) Hyper thcrmophillic
Ans. B
138. Gram staining is an example of ______
(A) Simple staining
(B) Differential staining
(C) Acid fast staining
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
139. Agar agar was discovered by ______
(A) Robert Koch
(B) Leeuwenhoek
(C) Paul Ehrlich
(D) Fannie Hesse
Ans. D
140. Actinomycetes are ______
(A) Gram -ve, aerobic
(B) Gram -ve, anaerobic
(C) Gram +ve, aerobic
(D) Gram +ve, anaerobic
Ans. C
141. First plant parasitic bacteria was reported by ______
(A) T.J. Burril
(B) John Needham
(C) John Tyndall
(D) Christian Gram
Ans. A
142. Rhizohium japonicum, a bio-fertilizer is used for ______
(A) Pea
(B) Alfa alfa
(C) Soybean
(D) Clover
Ans. C
143. Indicator of air pollution
(A) Actinomycetes
(B) Lichen
(C) Fungi
(D) Asparagus
Ans. B
144. Vitamin B2 is produced by ________
(A) Aspergillus niger
(B) Penicillium notatum
(C) Saccharomyces cerevisae
(D) Eremothecium gossypii (Ashbya gossypii)
Ans. A
145. Highest multiplication rate of microorganism in which phase
(A) Lag phase
(B) Log phase
(C) Decline phase
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
146. Who developed the method of sterilization called “hermatic sealing”
(A) Robret Koch
(B) Leeuwenhoek
(C) Lazzaro Spallazani
(D) Richard Petri
Ans. C
147. Who discovered that fungi produce antibiotic
(A) Robret Koch
(B) Leeuwenhoek
(C) Lazzaro Spallazani
(D) Fleming
Ans. D
148. Coined the term bacterium
(A) Christian Gottfried
(B) Leeuwenhoek Ehrenberg
(C) Lazzaro Spallazani
(D) Richard Petri
Ans. A
149. Germ theory of disease was given by ______
(A) Lazzaro Spallazani
(B) Richard Petri
(C) Robert Koch
(D) Leeuwenhoek
Ans. C
150. The enzyme involve in the degradation of protein in to peptides is ________
(A) Peptidase
(B) Alanine
(C) Dehydrogenase
(D) Protease
Ans. A
151. The percentage of cetane in the mixture of cetane and alphamethyl naphthalene is called _______
(A) Octane number
(B) Cetane number
(C) Both A and B
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
152. API degree is given by ______
(A) 141.5/Specific gravity of oil at 60°F – 131.5
(B) 141.5/Specific gravity of oil at 60°F – 13.15
(C) 141.5/Specific gravity of oil at 60°F – 1.315
(D) 141.5/Specific gravity of oil at 60°F – 0.131
153. Turbocharger is run by _________
(A) Crankshaft
(B) Exhaust gases
(C) Crankshaft
(D) All of the above
Ans. B
154. Supercharger is run by _________
(A) Crankshaft
(B) Exhaust gases
(C) Crankshaft
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
155. Device used to control the speed of engine within specified limit is called ________
(A) Turbocharger
(B) Choke
(C) Carburetor
(D) Governor
Ans. D
156. Which type of governor is used on tractor engine?
(A) 10 kmph speed governor
(B) 15 kmph speed governor
(C) Constant speed governor
(D) Variable speed governor
Ans. D
157. In governing system governor regulation is given by ______
Ans. A
158. Governor hunting sign is associated to ________
(A) Periodic effect on engine speed
(B) Sudden stop of engine
(C) Sudden increase in fuel consumption
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
159. At full load condition, the variation in speed of engine at full load conditions, should be ________
(A) 200 rpm
(B) 300 rpm
(C) 100 rpm
(D) 500 rpm
Ans. C
160. An ignition coil can step up the voltage from __________
(A) 6 to 20000 voltage
(B) 1200 to 2000 volts
(C) 12 to 24 volts
(D) 40 to 240 volts
Ans. A
161. Volatility of fuel affects the _________
(A) Ease of start of engine
(B) Fuels calorific value
(C) Engine speed
(D) Both B and C
Ans. A
162. Fully charged battery having specific gravity
(A) 1.225
(B) 1.280
(C) Both A and B
(D) 1.150
Ans. B
163. Battery need to charge, when specific gravity falls below
(A) < 1.225
(B) 1.280
(C) Both A and B
(D) 1.150
Ans. A
164. Spark plug gap setting is kept between
(A) 0.8 to 1.0 mm
(B) 10 to 14 mm
(C) 8 to 10 mm
(D) 0.50 to 0.85 mm
Ans. D
165. Lubricant’s viscosity is measured by _________
(A) Hydrometer
(B) Hygrometer
(C) Saybolt Viscometer
(D) All of the above
Ans. C
166. The minimum temperature at which oil just start to flow is called _________
(A) Pour point
(B) Cloud point
(C) Flash point
(D) Fire point
Ans. A
167. Which type of governor is used on tractor engine?
(A) 10 kmph speed governor
(B) 15 kmph speed governor
(C) Constant speed governor
(D) Variable speed governor
Ans. D
168. The recommended pressure of lubricating oil in tractor engine is about _________
(A) 150 kg/cm2
(B) 3 kg/cm2
(C) 110 kg/cm2
(D) 275 kg/cm2
Ans. B
169. The three classes of oil for diesel engine are _________
(A) ML, MM and MS
(B) DG, DM and DS
(C) HSD, LDO and MD
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
170. Device which is used to ignite the air fuel mixture inside the cylinder is _________
(A) Carburetor
(B) Heat of compression
(C) Choke
(D) Spark Plug
Ans. D
171. Cold spark plug dissipates the heat
(A) At 10 sec.
(B) Quickly
(C) Very slowly
(D) At 5 sec.
Ans. A
172. A hot spark plug dissipates the heat
(A) At 10 sec.
(B) Quickly
(C) Slowly
(D) At 5 sec.
Ans. C
173. In lead-acid battery the level of electrolyte above top edge of plates should be _____
(A) 5 mm
(B) 12 to 14 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 12 to 14 cm
Ans. B
174. A chemically correct air-fuel mixture for engine is about
(A) 15:1
(B) 4:1
(C) 8:1
(D) 22:1
Ans. A
175. Melting point of aluminium is about:
(A) 678°C
(B) 1150°C
(C) 1200°C
(D) 550°C
Ans. A
176. The discharge over a V-notch is proportional to ________
(A) H3/2
(B) H–3/2
(C) H5/2
(D) H1/2
Ans. C
177. The normal range in specific speed encountered in single suction impeller design is _________
(A) 10-300
(B) 300-500
(C) 500-1500
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
178. Blinding of tiles refers to ________
(A) Trenching the drain
(B) Laying the tiles
(C) Joining the tiles
(D) Covering the tiles with loose earth
Ans. D
179. Pressure plate apparatus is used for measurement of soil moisture tension up to
(A) 15 bar
(B) 50 bar
(C) 75 bar
(D) 100 bar
Ans. A
180. Water horse power formula is given by _________
(A) (Discharge x Head)/75
(B) SHP/WHP
(C) (Discharge x Head)/100
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
181. Practically the suction lift of a centrifugal pump is _______
(A) < 1 atmo
(B) < 2 atmo
(C) = 1 atmo
(D) = 2 atmo
Ans. A
182. Subsurface drains removes
(A) Excess surface water
(B) Capillary sub-surface water
(C) Sub-surface gravitational water
(D) Excess runoff water from rainfall
Ans. C
183. The centrifugal pumps are used for pumping water when
(A) Both head and discharge are high
(B) Both discharge and head are low
(C) Discharge is high and head is low
(D) Discharge is low head is high
Ans. D
184. Centrifugal force is involved in the generation of pressure in _________
(A) Axial flow pump
(B) Radial flow pump
(C) Mixed flow pump
(D) Reciprocating pump
Ans. B
185. Specific speed is generally stated for _________
(A) Maximum efficiency
(B) Minimum efficiency
(C) Entire range of efficiency
(D) None of the above
Ans. A
186. For a given head and capacity, a pump having larger specific speed will be ________
(A) Smaller and cheaper
(B) Smaller and costly
(C) Larger and costly
(D) Larger and cheaper
Ans. A
187. If the speed of centrifugal pump is doubled, the power required will be increased by ________
(A) 2 times
(B) 4 times
(C) 6 times
(D) 8 times
Ans. D
188. Sprinkler irrigation is recommended in _________
(A) Highly undulating area
(B) Soils having high infiltration rate
(C) Irrigation source is tube well
(D) In all the above situation
Ans. D
189. Isohyets are _________
(A) Lines of equal temperature on map
(B) Lines of equal Precipitation on map
(C) Lines of equal pressure on map
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
190. The soil property for good water yield is _______
(A) Porosity
(B) Effective size > 0.1 mm
(C) Uniformity coefficient >3
(D) Uniformity coefficient < 2
Ans. A
191. In a radial centrifugal pump, the inlet angle will be designed to have __________
(A) Relative velocity vector in radial direction
(B) Absolute velocity vector in radial direction
(C) Velocity of flow to be zero
(D) All of the above
Ans. A
192. Soil erosion more in _________
(A) Sandy soils
(B) Silty soils
(C) Clay loam
(D) Steady jump
Ans. A
193. Which impeller has a no shroud?
(A) Closed impeller
(B) Semi-open impeller
(C) Open impeller
(D) Non clog impeller
Ans. C
194. Maize is ________
(A) Soil depleting crop
(B) Soil maintaining crop
(C) Soil building crop
(D) None of above
Ans. A
195. The following method of surface drainage is most suited to soils that need the combination of surface and subsurface drainage
(A) Parallel open ditch system
(B) Random field ditch system
(C) Parallel field drain system
(D) Bedding system
Ans. C
196. Penman method is used to compute
(A) Consumptive use of crop
(B) Potential ET of crop
(C) Water requirement of crop
(D) Irrigation requirement of crop
Ans. B
197. Sub-irrigation is useful in a situation
(A) Saline water is used for irrigation
(B) Soil is heavy clay to permit high capillary rise
(C) Capillary movement in the root zone is rapid
(D) No hard pan is present below the root zone
Ans. C
198. At field capacity soil moisture tension of sandy soil is approximately equal to ______
(A) 0.1 bar
(B) 1.0 bar
(C) 10 bar
(D) 15 bar
Ans. A
199. The brake horse power of centrifugal pump varies directly
(A) As the speed of impeller
(B) As the square of speed of impeller
(C) As the cube of speed of impeller
(D) As the fourth power of speed of impeller
Ans. C
200. Soil detachability increases as the ________
(A) Size of particle reduce
(B) Impact angle of raindrop reduce
(C) Size of particle increase
(D) Length of slope reduce
Ans. A