Compilation of 200+ Agricultural Engineering objective questions highly useful for cracking Pre PG (Ag) Test, JRF, SRS, ARS, NET, SET, Ph.D, ASRB, IRMA, UPSC, NARBARD, Cooperative Bank, P.O, BEd. MANAGE and allied Agricultural Exams!
1. The slat type of moulder board is used in:
a) Grassy land
b) Salty soil
c) Sticky soil
d) Stone soil
Ans. (c)
2. Which device is used to cut the furrow slice vertically from a land ahead of bottom?
a) Dribller
b) Coulter
c) Gunne
d) Fluted roller
Ans. (b)
3. A part of moulder board pough which lifts, turns and break furrow slice is:
a) Pointer
b) Mould board
c) Share
d) Jointer
Ans. (b)
4. The size of light MB pough is:
a) Below 50 width of cut
b) Between 100 width and 150 mm width of cut
c) Above 300 width of cut
d) Above 200 width of cut
Ans. (b)
5. Tilt angle of standard disc plough varies from:
a) 15-25 degree
b) 25 – 30 degree
c) 10-15 degree
d) 50 – 55 degree
Ans. (a)
6. The tilt angle of wheat plough is:
a) 0 degree
b) 15 – 25 degree
c) 30 – 35 degree
d) 10 – 15 degree
Ans. (a)
7. Which of the following type of tynes present in a bullock drawn harrow?
a) Rigid tynes
b) Flexible tynes
c) Both rigid and flexible tynes
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
8. Acme Harrows are mostly used for:
a) Clod crushing
b) Mulching
c) Seed bed preparation
d) Puddling
Ans. (b)
9. Which one of the following type of tynes is present in a tractor drawn harrow?
a) Rigid tynes
b) Flexible tynes
c) Both rigid and flexible tynes
d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
10. A ridger is used for:
a) Clod crushing
b) Puddling
c) Levelling
d) Seed bed preparation
Ans. (b)
11. Which of the following is / are the main cause of heavy draft of disc harrow?
a) Blunt disc
b) Furrow to wide
c) Loose bearing
d) All are correct
Ans. (d)
12. Macermic cultivator is a
a) Bullock drawn
b) Tractor drawn
c) Diesel engine operated
d) None of these
Ans. (a)
13. Animal drawn patea is:
a) Puddler
b) Ridger
c) Clod crusher
d) None of these
Ans. (c)
14. Which of the following type of work can be done by Sweeps?
a) Seedpad preparation
b) Ridging
c) Earthing plants
d) Mulching
Ans. (d)
15. Inter row water harvesting is practiced in arid areas with light soil where annual rainfall does not exceed
a) 400 – 450 mm
b) 500 – 700 mm
c) 800-900 mm
d) 900- 1000 mm
Ans. (a)
16. Which of the following is / are the principle of watershed management?
a) ‘ Setting up of small scale agro industries
b) Improving socio-economic status of farmers
c) Ensuring sustainability of the ecosystem
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
17. A centrifugal pump converts the input power to kinetic energy in the liquid by
a) accelerating the liquid by a revolving device – an impeller
b) accelerating the liquid by internal kinetic pressure due to liquid
c) accelerating the liquid by power
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
18. The energy created by the centrifugal pump according the Bernoulli Equation is
a) potential energy
b) kinetic energy
c) chemical energy
d) electrical energy
Ans. (b)
19. The energy transferred to the liquid
a) corresponds to the velocity at the edge or vane tip of the impeller
b) inversely proportional to the velocity at the edge or vane tip of the impeller
c) is proportional to the square root of the velocity at the edge or vane tip of the impeller
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
20. Which of the following is / are major element or macronutrients of plant?
a) Fe and Mg
b) Mn
c) B and Zn
d) Mo and Cu
Ans. (a)
21. Which of the following is / are minor element or micronutrients of plant?
a) C and H
b) O and N
c) B and Zn
d) P and S
Ans. (c)
22. A micronutrient or trace element is one which
a) Is less important than the major essential element
b) Is present in small quantities in the soil
c) Is more important than the major essential element
d) Is needed in very small amount but is as important as a major essential element
Ans. (d)
23. Which of the following is a micronutrient?
a) Mg++
b) K+
c) Ca++
d) Zn++
Ans. (d)
24. When the demand for an economic good exceeds supply as a result of a weather- related shortfall in water supply, it is known as
a) Meteorological drought
b) Hydrological drought
c) Agricultural drought
d) Socio-economic drought
Ans. (d)
25. Drought indices assimilate thousands of bits of data on
a) Rainfall
b) Snowpack
c) Stream flow
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
26. A thin slice of sugarbeet when placed in a concentrated solution of sodium chloride would:
a) Loose water from its cells
b) Become turgid
c) Absorb water from salt solution
d) Neither absorb water nor loose water
Ans. (a)
27. A cell increase I volume if the external medium is
a) Hypotonic
b) Slightly hypertonic
c) Isotonic
d) Much more concentrated than the protoplasm of the cell
Ans. (a)
28. If salt is present in higher concentration in a cell than outside then:
a) Water will pass from inside the cell to outside by diffusion
b) Water will enter the cell by osmosis
c) Salt will escape from the cell through the semi permeable membrane
d) There will be no movement of substances between the cell and its environment
Ans. (b)
29. Seeds that are released from the plant in a non-dormant state but which become dormant if the conditions for germination are unfavorable exhibit
a) Primary dormancy
b) Secondary dormancy
c) Tertiary dormancy
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
30. RQ (respiratory quotient) of C39H74O6 is:
a) 0.715
b) 1.000
c) 0.635
d) 2.145
Ans. (a)
31. In Crassulacean Acid Metabolism (CAM) plants
a) phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase reduces C02 to make malic acid
b) stomata open only during the day
c) vascular tissue is surrounded by a bundle sheath
d) rubisco is activated only at night
Ans. (a)
32. In anaerobic respiration in plants:
a) Carbon dioxide is taken in
b) Carbon dioxide is given out
c) Oxygen is taken in
d) Oxygen is given out
Ans. (c)
33. Standards of germination for seed certification in chillies is:
a) 70%
b) 90%
c) 80%
d) 60%
Ans. (d)
34. The pilot project for rural development was started in
a) 1971
b) 1978
c) 1952
d) 1948
Ans. (d)
35. The president of state development committee is:
a) Agriculture Minister
b) Governor
c) Chief Minister
d) None of them
Ans. (c)
36. The programme for transfer of technology started by ICAR at the golden Jubilee year occasion was:
a) National demonstration
b) Operation research project
c) Lab to land
d) National agriculture research project
Ans. (c)
37. SHG is a group formed by the community women, which has specific number of members like
a) 15 or 20
b) 30-35
c) 40 – 50
d) 32-38
Ans. (a)
38. WEAI stands for
a) Women’s Empowerment in Agriculture Index
b) Women’s Education in Agriculture Institute
c) Women’s Education in Agriculture Index
d) Women’s Empowerment in Agriculture Institute
Ans. (a)
39. The WEAI is also a useful tool for tracking progress toward ___________ which is one of the Millennium Development Goals
a) Gender equality
b) Gender counting
c) Gender maintenance
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
40. The Women’s Empowerment in Agriculture Index (WEAI) measures
a) the empowerment
b) agency
c) inclusion of women in the agriculture sector
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
41. WEAI is a significant innovation in its field and aims to increase understanding of the connections between
a) women’s empowerment, food security, and agricultural growth
b) women’s empowerment and food security
c) women’s empowerment and agricultural growth
d) none of the above
Ans. (a)
42. The WEAI is a composite measurement tool that indicates women’s control over critical parts of their lives in the
a) household
b) community
c) economy
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
43. Which of the following is correct about self-help groups (SHGs)?
a) Self-help groups are started by nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) that generally have broad anti-poverty agendas
b) Self-help groups are seen as instruments for a variety of goals including empowering women, developing leadership abilities among poor people, increasing school enrolments, and improving nutrition and the use of birth control
c) A Self-Help Group may be registered or unregistered
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
44. The advantage of financing through SHGs is that
a) An economically poor individual gains strength as part of a group
b) Besides, financing through SHGs reduces transaction costs for both lenders and borrowers
c) While lenders have to handle only a single SHG account instead of a large number of small-sized individual accounts, borrowers as part of an SHG cut down expenses on travel (to & from the branch and other places) for completing paper work and on the loss of workdays in canvassing for loans
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
45. Important elements of evaluation process is:
a) Observations, collection of some of the information and final decision
b) Observations or collection and criteria to observation
c) Observations, or collection of some information applying some standards
d) Observations, criteria to observations and making some decisions
Ans. (d)
46. In extension, most preferred approach is:
a) Automatic approach
b) Democratic approach
c) Optimistic approach
d) Lessaiz faire approach
Ans. (b)
47. In extension, we require:
a) Social leader
b) Educated leader
c) Poor unemployed youth
d) Local potential functional leader
Ans. (d)
48. In extension we want to bring about the desirable changes through:
a) Education
b) Leadership
c) Picture presentation
d) None of these
Ans. (a)
49. In India _________of the population lives in
a) Project officer
b) One – fourth
c) one-fifth
d) Two – thirds
Ans. (c)
50. Extension as a science classified under
a) Hard science
b) Soft science
c) Political science
d) Physical science
Ans. (b)
51. Extension is not
a) Voluntary
b) Family centered
c) Conclusion oriented
d) Flexible
Ans. (a)
52. Extension basically is a two way process between
a) Farmer and researcher
b) Researcher and local people
c) Teacher and planner
d) Researcher and student
Ans. (a)
53. Extension that emphasize on human resource development is
a) Participatory extension
b) Formative extension
c) Informative extension
d) Universal extension
Ans. (b)
54. Extension when used as a policy instrument for achieving societal objective is
a) Emancipator extension
b) Formative extension
c) Informative extension
d) Persuasive extension
Ans. (d)
55. The inflection point on total product curve corresponds to the:
a) Maximum of marginal product curve
b) Maximum of average product curve
c) Maximum of total product curve
d) Minimum of marginal product curve
Ans. (d)
56. Which of the following is exotic sheep breed?
a) Rambouillet
b) Cheviot
c) Southdown
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
57. Which of the following is correct about Suffolk breed of sheep?
a) It is native of U.K. and is large animals with black face, ears and legs
b) Wool yields 2.75 to 3.25 kg produce mutton of superior quality
c) It is a hardy breed and capable of performing veil under most conditions
d) All the above
Ans. (a)
58. Which of the following is correct about Merino breed of sheep?
a) The animal is extremely hardy being able to survive under adverse weather and poor grazing conditions
b) Rams weigh as much as 125 kg and ewes up to a maximum of 90 kg
c) The fleece is heavy, close, compact, covering most of the body including face and legs
d) Body is low-set, compact, wide and deep with legs wide apart. Head is broad; face is light brown coloured
Ans. (a)
59. Which of the following is an Indian goat breed?
a) Jamunapari
b) Beetal
c) Barbari
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
60. Which of the following is correct about Jamunapari breed of goat?
a) It is largest and most elegant of the long-legged goats of India
b) Jamunapari breeds are found mainly in the state of Uttar Pradesh
c) Their ears are large and drooped downwards
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
61. Sirohi is a
a) Indian goat breed
b) Exotic goat breed
c) Indian sheep breed
d) Indian swine breed
Ans. (a)
62. 5′ -Terminus of mRNA molecule is capped with
a) Guanosine triphosphate
b) 7-Methylguanosine triphophate
c) Adenosine monophosphate
d) Adenosine triphosphate
Ans. (b)
63. The first codon to be translated on mRNA is
a) AUG
b) AUC
c) GUC
d) AAA
Ans. (a)
64. AUG, the only identified codon for methionine is important as
a) Recognition site on tRNA
b) A chain terminating codon
c) A releasing factor for peptide chains
d) A chain initiating codon
Ans. (d)
65. In biosynthesis of proteins the chain terminating codons are
a) UAA, UAG and UGA
b) GCG, GCA and GCU
c) AAU, AAG and GAU
d) UGG, UGU and AGU
Ans. (a)
66. The formation of initiation complex during protein synthesis requires a factor:
a) IF-III
b) EF-II
c) EF-I
d) IF -1
Ans. (a)
67. The amino terminal of all polypeptide chain at the time of synthesis in E. coli is tagged to the amino acid residue:
a) Tryptophan
b) Glycine
c) N – formyl methinine
d) N – formal serine
Ans. (c)
68. Initiation of protein synthesis begins with binding of
a) 40S ribosomal unit on mRNA
b) 50S ribosomal unit
c) Charging of mRNAwith specific amino acid
d) Attachment of aminoacyl mRNA on tRNA
Ans. (a)
69. Initiation of protein synthesis requires
a) ATP
b) UTP
c) GDP
d) GTP
Ans. (d)
70. The enzyme amino acyl tRNA synthetase is involved in
a) Nucleophilic attack on esterified carboxyl group of peptidyl tRNA
b) Charging of tRNA with specific amino acids
c) Termination of protein synthesis
d) Dissociation of discharged tRNA from 50S ribosome
Ans. (b)
71. The number of high energy phosphate bond equivalent utilised in the process of activation of amino acids for protein synthesis is
a) 0
b) 3
c) 2
d) 5
Ans. (c)
72. Translation results in a product known as
a) Protein
b) tRNA
c) mRNA
d) ssRNA
Ans. (a)
73. The kinetic energy of a liquid coming out of an impeller of centrifugal pump is obstructed by
a) creating a induction in the flow
b) creating a resistance in the flow
c) creating a electrical energy in the flow
d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
74. A measure of the efficiency with which the centrifugal pump transfers useful work to the fluid, is known as its
a) Pump efficiency
b) Pump velocity
c) Pump intensity
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
75. In water plot harvesting, the water is harvested in the
a) Ponds
b) Passages or furrows
c) Ditches
d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
76. Jalshakti, a chemical when applied in soil improves
a) Aeration
b) Infiltration
c) Water holding capacity of the soil
d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
77. Which of the following is anti-transpirant?
a) Phenylmercuric acetate (PMA)
b) Atrazine in low concentration
c) ABA
d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
78. Premature leaf fall is caused due to the deficiency of
a) K
b) Zn
c) Ca
d) P
Ans. (d)
79. The most important use of potassium is that
a) It provides red colour to fruit
b) It aids photosynthesis
c) It influences enzymatic activity which regulates many plant processes
d) It helps in the formation of cambium
Ans. (c)
80. Which of the following is responsible for absorption of mineral salts from the soil solution?
a) A semi-permeable membrane into the cytoplasm
b) Perforations at the apex of the root hair cells
c) The cell wall which is semi-permeable
d) None of these
Ans. (a)
81. Which of the following is not an essential element for plant?
a) Iron
b) Boron
c) Sulphur
d) Se
Ans. (d)
82. In plant nutrition, elements are classified as major or minor depending on
a) Their mode of absorption
b) Their relative production in the ash obtained after burning the plant
c) The relative amounts required by the plant
d) Their fertility efficiency
Ans. (c)
83. The importance of micronutrients was recognized rather belatedly because
a) Plant physiologists could not detect them in plants
b) They were being absorbed as contaminants or impurities in the laboratory chemicals used in the nutrient solutions
c) They were lost by plants through roots,
d) They were toxic to the plant
Ans. (b)
84. Plant absorb the element nitrogen in the form of
a) Ammonia
b) NH4+
c) Nitrites
d) Nitrates
Ans. (d)
85. If a potato tuber piece is placed in concentrated salt solution then
a) It would become limp due to loss of water from its cells
b) It would become turgid by absorbing water from salt solution
c) It would die
d) Nothing would happen to the potato tuber
Ans. (a)
86. Process of selective transmission of a liquid through semipermeable membrane is called
a) Diffusion
b) Osmosis
c) Hydrolysis
d) Transpiration
Ans. (b)
87. Diffusion of water through selectively permeable membrane is:
a) Osmosis
b) Transpiration
c) Imbibition
d) Plasmolysis
Ans. (a)
88. In plants, the diffusion of __________ is allowed through the semipermeable membrane.
a) Solute
b) Solvent
c) Both solute and solvent
d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
89. Which of the following type of movement occur through semipermeable membrane in osmosis?
a) Water from the less to the more concentrated solution side
b) Water from the more to the less concentrated solution side
c) Suspended particles from lower to higher concentration
d) Suspended particles from higher to lower concentration
Ans. (a)
90. Which of the following type of movement occurs during osmosis?
a) Solvent particles from the higher concentration to lower concentration
b) Solvent particles from the lower concentration to higher concentration
c) Solute particles from higher concentration to lower concentration
d) Solute particles from lower concentration to higher concentration
Ans. (b)
91. Which of the following movement occurs during the process of osmosis?
a) Movement of solute through a semipermeable membrane
b) Movement of solvent through a semipermeable membrane
c) Movement of a solution through a semipermeable membrane
d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
92. Osmosis is:
a) Diffusion of solvent
b) Diffusion of solute
c) Imbibition of solution
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
93. If a cell is reduced in size on placing in a solution of sugar, the solution is:
a) Hypotonic
b) Hypertonic
c) Isotonic
d) None of these
Ans. (b)
94. Evapotranspiration can be reduced by:
a) Mulches
b) Antitranspirants
c) Wind breaks
d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
95. The term water harvesting was used for the first time by:
a) Winfield
b) Napolean
c) Myors
d) Alfred
Ans. (c)
96. Micronutrients
a) Are less important in nutrition than macronutrient
b) Are as important in nutrition as the macronutrient
c) May be omitted from culture media without any detrimental effect on the plants
d) Are called micro because they play only a minor role in plant nutrition
Ans. (b)
97. Chlorophyll contain
a) Fe
b) Mg
c) K
d) Mn
Ans. (b)
98. The deficiency of molybdenum causes
a) Wilting of plant
b) Increase in growth of plant
c) Chlorosis in plant
d) Mottling and necrosis in plant
Ans. (d)
99. The element left as when chlorophyll is burnt is
a) Iron
b) Manganese
c) Magnesium
d) Molybdenum
Ans. (c)
100. The plant ash is an indication of
a) Mineral salt absorbed by the plant
b) Organic matter of the plant
c) Both the mineral salts and organic matter
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
101. It is possible to get a rough idea of the deficiency of an essential element in the soil without doing soil test
a) Only by making a detailed analysis of the ash of a plant growing in it
b) By noting the typing morphological symptoms of deficiency shown by plants growing
c) By observing the physical texture of the soil
d) By determining the dry weight of the plant
Ans. (b)
102. Which of the following is a trace element?
a) Mg
b) Ca
c) P
d) Mo
Ans. (d)
103. In many cases a viable (living) seed will not germinate even though all the necessary environmental conditions for growth are satisfied such his phenomenon is termed as
a) seed dormancy
b) seed germination
c) seed drought
d) seed physiology
Ans. (a)
104. Seed dormancy introduces a temporal delay in the germination process that provides
a) additional time for seed dispersal over greater geographical distances
b) maximizes seedling survival by preventing germination under unfavorable conditions
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
105. Dormancy imposed on the embryo by the seed coat and other enclosing tissues, such as endosperm, pericarp, or extrafloral organs is called
a) coat – imposed dormancy
b) embryo dormancy
c) water dormancy
d) soil based dormancy
Ans. (a)
106. A dormancy that is inherent in the embryo and is not due to any influence of the seed coat or other surrounding tissues
a) embryo dormancy
b) water dormancy
c) soil based dormancy
d) Coat-imposed dormancy
Ans. (a)
107. Seeds that are released from the plant in a dormant state are said to exhibit
a) primary dormancy
b) secondary dormancy
c) tertiary dormancy
d) none of the above
Ans. (a)
108. Many seeds lose their dormancy when their moisture content is reduced to a certain level by drying, such method of breaking seed dormancy is called
a) Afterripening
b) Chilling
c) Heating
d) Evaporisation
Ans. (a)
109. Exchange of gases between the air and internal tissue of older corky stems takes place through:
a) Xylem
b) Phloem
c) Stomata
d) Lenticels
Ans. (d)
110. Respiration in plants:
a) Occurs only during the day
b) Results in the formation of starch
c) Is characteristic of all living cells
d) Often require carbon monoxide
Ans. (c)
111. Respiration in plants is essential because
a) It liberates energy
b) It provides oxygen to plants
c) It liberates carbon dioxide
d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
112. The group of plants similar to animals in their requirements of oxygen for cellular respiration both in the day and night are:
a) Lichens
b) Viruses
c) Fungi
d) Blue-green alga
Ans. (c)
113. Different steps in respiration are controlled by:
a) Enzymes
b) Auxins
c) Zeotin
d) Cytocine
Ans. (a)
114. First Seed Testing Laboratory was established at IARI in the year
a) 1971
b) 1961
c) 1981
d) 1991
Ans. (b)
115. International seed testing association was organized on
a) 10 July, 1924
b) 12 July, 1914
c) 12 Feb, 1942
d) 10 Feb, 1935
Ans. (a)
116. First private seed company was
a) NSC
b) Monsanto
c) Sutton & Sons
d) Takii
Ans. (c)
117. In hypothesis testing, â is the probability of committing an error of Type II. The power of the test, 1 —β is then:
(a) The probability of rejecting H0 when H1, is true
(b) The probability of failing to reject H0 when H1, is true
(c) The probability of failing to reject H0 when H0 is true
(d) The probability of rejecting H0 when H0 is true
(e) The probability of failing to reject H0.
Ans: a
118. Sugarcane is a
a) Kharif crop
b) Rabi crop
c) Jayad crop
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
119.___________ has the largest area under sugarcane cultivation in the world
(a) China
(b) Brazil
(c) India
(d) USA
Ans. (c)
120. Which of the following is/are the distinct geographical regions of sugarcane production in the country?
(a) The Satluj-Ganga plain from Punjab to Bihar
(b) The black soil belt from Maharashtra to Tamil Nadu along the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats
(c) Coastal Andhra Pradesh and Krishna river valley
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
121. Which of the following country has the largest area under cultivation of cotton in world
(a) Japan
(b) Brazil
(c) India
(d) USA
Ans. (c)
122. Which of the following country is third largest producer of cotton in world
(a) Japan
(b) Brazil
(c) India
(d) USA
Ans. (c)
123. The main states for cotton production are
(a) Punjab, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana
(b) Punjab, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Goa
(c) Punjab, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab, Assam, Rajasthan and Haryana
Ans. (a)
124. Which of the following state is the leading producer that accounts for more than 50% of tea production of India?
(a) Assam
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
125. Which of the following are examples of passive remote sensing?
(a) Photography, infrared
(b) Infrared, charge-coupled devices
(c) Photography and radiometers
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
126. Hemolytic anemia is caused by the deficiency of certain enzymes of the pentose phosphate pathway, the principal enzyme involved is
a) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
b) Aldolase
c) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphatase
d) Phosphohexose isomerase
Ans. (a)
127. The sites for gluconeogenesis are
a) Liver and kidney
b) Skin and pancreas
c) Liver and stomach
d) Stomach and lungs
Ans. (a)
128. An enzyme involved in gluconeogenesis is
a) Phosphohexose isomerise
b) Pyruvate carboxylase
c) Hexokinase
d) Pyruvate kinase
Ans. (b)
129. The enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is present in
a) Ribosome
b) Mitochondria
c) Chloroplast
d) Golgi bodies
Ans. (b)
130. The enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase catalyses the conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate requires
a) ATP
b) NAD
c) FAD
d) GTP
Ans. (d)
131. Brown leaf spot disease of rice is caused by:
a) Drechslera oryzae
b) Cercospora arachidicola
c) Xanthomonas oryzae
d) Pyricularia oryzae
Ans. (a)
132. The pathogen of rice blast or “rotten neck” is:
a) Ustilago tritici
b) Pyricularia oryzae
c) Alternaria alternate
d) None of these
Ans. (b)
133. Wilt of pigeon pea is caused by:
a) Fusarium udum
b) Giberella indica
c) Rhizopus nigricans
d) Aspergillus flavus
Ans. (a)
134. For the effective control of wilt, pigeonpea should be intercropped with:
a) Maize
b) Pearlmillet
c) Sorghum
d) Mung
Ans. (c)
135. Loose smut of barley is / are:
a) Internally seed borne
b) Externally seed borne
c) Soil borne
d) All of these
Ans. (a)
136. The false smut of sugarcane can be controlled by adopting:
a) Avoid the practice of ratooning
b) Disinfection of seeds before planting
c) Removal of smutted whips from the field
d) All of these
Ans. (d)
137. Infection smut of maize (Ustilago maydis) occurs during:
a) Vegetative stage
b) Reproductive stage
c) After flowering
d) Before sowing
Ans. (a)
138. Loose smut of wheat can be effectively controlled by:
a) Crop rotation
b) Soil treatment with non-systematic fungicides
c) Seed treatment with systemic fungicides
d) Spraying the crop with fungicides
Ans. (c)
139. Plant parasitic nematodes possess:
a) Two-part oesophagus
b) Three-part oesophagus
c) Four-part oesophagus
d) None of these
Ans. (c)
140. Crop water need (mm/total growing period) for Rice (paddy) crop is
a) 450-700
b) 900-1200
c) 500-800
d) 400-600
Ans. (a)
141. Crop water need (mm/total growing period) for Soybean crop is
a) 500-800
b) 450-700
c) 400-600
d) 550-750
Ans. (b)
142. Crop water need (mm/total growing period) for Sunflower crop is
a) 550-700
b) 600-1000
c) 400-600
d) 750-1000
Ans. (b)
143. Scientific name of rice is:
(a) Oryzae sativa
(b) Pisum sativum
(c) Allium cepa
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
144. ______ is the diameter of the engine cylinder
(a) Bore
(b) Stroke
(c) Stroke-bore ratio
(d) Swept volume (Piston displacement)
(e) Compression ratio
Ans: a
145. ________ is the linear distance traveled by the piston from Top dead centre (TDC) to Bottom dead centre (BDC)
(a) Bore
(b) Stroke
(c) Stroke-bore ratio
(d) Swept volume (Piston displacement)
(e) Compression ratio
Ans: b
146. Ratio of length of stroke (L) and diameter of bore (D) of the Cylinder
(a) Bore
(b) Stroke
(c) Stroke-bore ratio
(d) Swept volume (Piston displacement)
(e) Compression ratio
Ans: c
147. ________ is the volume (A x L) displaced by one stroke of the piston where A is the cross sectional area of piston and L is the length of stroke
(a) Bore
(b) Stroke
(c) Stroke-bore ratio
(d) Swept volume (Piston displacement)
(e) Compression ratio
Ans: d
148. ________ is the ratio of the volume of the charge at the beginning of the compression stroke to that at the end of compression stroke
(a) Bore
(b) Stroke
(c) Stroke-bore ratio
(d) Swept volume (Piston displacement)
(e) Compression ratio
Ans: e
149. Compression ratio of diesel engine varies from
(a) 14:1 to 20:1
(b) 4:1 to 8:1
(c) None
Ans: a
150. Compression ratio of carburetor engine varies from
(a) 14:1 to 20:1
(b) 4:1 to 8:1
(c) None
Ans: b
151. Calorific values (kcal/kg) of petrol
(a) 11,100
(b) 10,850
(c) 10,550
(d) 10,300
Ans: a
152. Which of the following is engine components?
(a) Cylinder
(b) Cylinder head
(c) Piston
(d) Piston rings
(e) Valves
(f) All
Ans: f
153. Electrolyte is the chemical solution used in battery for chemical reaction and consists of what in fully charged condition
(a) 35% sulphuric acid
(b) 65% distilled water by weight
(c) With a specific gravity of 1.280
(d) All
Ans: d
154. Clutches are mainly of types
(a) Friction clutch
(b) Dog clutch
(c) Fluid coupling
(d) All
Ans: d
155. Which of the following cross-section of channel is hydrological naturally stable?
(a) Trapezoidal
(b) Rectangular
(c) Triangular
(d) Parabolic
Ans: d
156. Trenching is practiced for water conservation in order to facilitate
(a) Intensive crop cultivation
(b) Paddy cultivation
(c) Tree/plantation establishment
(d) Storing water for irrigation to crop
Ans: c
157. Which of the following is correct practice of soil and water conservation?
(a) Staggered trench along the slope
(b) Staggered trench across the slope
(c) Continuous trench along the slope
(d) Combination of (a) and (c)
Ans: b
158. For runoff estimation from black soil whish of the following formula is used
(a) Q=P-03S)2/P+0.7S)
(b) Q= P-0.1S)2/P+0.9S)
(c) Q=P-0.3S)2/P+3S)
(d) Q=P-0.1S)2/P+0.1S)
Ans: b
159. Very small and small gully can be reclaimed by
(a) Leveling
(b) By putting under grazing
(c) By constructing diversion drains
(d) By constructing check dams
Ans: a
160. Operational research project on watershed management started in India during
(a) 1947
(b) 1951
(c) 1974
(d) 2007
Ans: c
161. Guly plugs are constructed for the stabilization of
(a) Gully head
b) Gully side slope
(c) Gully bed
(d) To store runoff for supplemental irrigation
Ans: c
162. Diversion drains are constructed with main aim of protection to
(a) Gully head
(b) Gully side slope
(c) Gully bed
(d) To store runoff for supplemental irrigation
Ans: a
163. Movement of water within the unsaturated soil profile under action of gravity
(a) Seepage
(b) Lateral flow
(c) Infiltration
(d) Percolation
Ans: d
164. The component of percolated water move laterally and appears at surface is called
(a) Seepage
(b) Inter flow
(c) Infiltration
(d) Redistribution
Ans: b
165. A reasonable estimate for the median value is: £’000
(a) Between 18 and 20
(b) Between 16 and 18
(c) Between 14 and 16
(d) 55
Ans: a
166. The best estimate for the modal value is: £’000
(a) Between 14 and 16
(b) Between 16 and 18
(c) Between 50 and 100
(d) 8
Ans: b
167. The best estimate for the mean is: £’000
(a) 15.0
(b) 202
(c) 19.0
(d) 54.9
Ans: c
168. The best estimation of the standard deviation for the whole company is: £’000
(a) 8.0
(b) 119
(c) 12.1
(d) 15.0
Ans: a
169. One reason that the sample mean is the usual estimator of the population mean is that:
(a) The average of all sample means equals the population mean
(b) The sample mean equals the population mean
(c) The sample mean is unaffected by extreme values
(d) The sample mean occurs more often than the mode or the median.
Ans: a
170. Which of the following is the largest producer of groundnut in the world
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Russia
Ans. (b)
171. Which of the following are main producer of groundnut in India?
(a) Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Gujarat
(b) Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Uttar Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala
(d) Haryana, Gujarat, Rajasthan
Ans. (a)
172. Which of the following group of state accounts for about 30% of the total production of groundnut in India
(a) Goa, Karnataka and Odisha
(b) Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat and Haryana
(c) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Odisha
(d) Maharashtra, Kerala and Pondicherry
Ans. (c)
173. In plains, potato are planted on ridges spaced
(a) 10 cm apart
(b) 20 cm apart
(c) 30 cm apart
(d) 40 cm apart
Ans. (c)
174. The average yield of potato is
(a) 20-25 tonnes/ha
(b) 30-45 tonnes/ha
(c) 30-70 tonnes/ha
d) 10-12 tonnes/ha
Ans. (a)
175. Optimum temperature for storage and holding of green bananas is
(a) 8.0-10.4 °C
(b) 13.3 – 14.4 °C
(c) 18.3- 19.4 °C
(d) 23.3 -24.4 °C
Ans. (b)
176. Storage temperature for papaya is:
(a) 3-9°C
(b) 0.1-1.30 °C
(c) 9-15°C
(d) 4.5-6.0°C
Ans. (d)
177. Storage temperature for guava is:
(a) 9-10.0 °C
(b) 3-9°C
(c) 0.1-1.30 °C
(d) 7-7.5°C
Ans. (a)
178. Storage temperature for tomato is:
(a) 0-4.5°C
(b) 3-9°C
(c) 0.1-1.30 °C
(d) 9-15°C
Ans. (a)
179. Mango (Mangifera indica L.) belongs to the family:
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Anacardiaceae
(c) Bracecaceae
(d) Apiaceae
Ans. (b)
180. Cultivation of mango is believed to have originated in
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) S.E. Asia
(d) Pakistan
Ans. (c)
181. India ranks first among world’s mango producing countries accounting for about______ of the world’s mango production
(a) 10%
(b) 50%
(c) 15%
(d) 3%
Ans. (b)
182. India’s share in world’s mango production is:
(a) 52%
(b) 80%
(c) 13%
(d) 5%
Ans. (a)
182. Which of the following is characteristic of a good Extension Programme?
a) Working for the people
b) Helping the people to help themselves
c) For farmer upliftment
d) Helping the poor
Ans. (b)
183. After a suitable Extension teaching, the villagers attains desirable changes in his:
a) Behaviour
b) Way of talking
c) Economy
d) All of the above
Ans. (a)
184. A good Extension programme should be:
a) Flexible
b) Rigid
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
Ans. (a)
185. Agricultural Extension deals with:
a) Farmers
b) Institutional staff
c) Farmers and Industrialists
d) Govt, and Agri University
Ans. (a)
186. Aim of extension work is to bring about the changes:
a) Towards betterment
b) In the heart of the peoples
c) In local areas
d) In municipality
Ans. (a)
187. An Extension education:
a) develops the programme on the direction of Gram pradhan
b) develops the programme on the direction of local teacher
c) develops Programmes locally according to the need and desire of the farmers
d) All of the above
Ans. (c)
188. An Extension worker’s job is:
a) To educate the people
b) To provide employment
c) To train the rural worker for agriculture
d) To give free education to poor
Ans. (a)
189. The term “Extension Education” was coined in
a) USA
b) UK
c) Netherlands
d) India
Ans. (b)
190. Which of the following is considered as Indigenous Breeds based on utility/ purpose?
a) Milch breeds / Milk breeds
b) Dual Purpose breeds
c) Draught breeds
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
191. Which of the following is correct about Milch Breeds / Milk Breeds?
a) The cows of these breeds are high milk yields and the male animals are slow or poor work animals
b) The cows of these breeds are average milk yielder and male animals are very useful for work
c) The male animals of this breed are good for work and Cows are poor milk yielder are their milk yield as an average is less than 500 kg per lactation
d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
192. Which of the following is correct about Draught Breeds?
a) The cows of these breeds are high milk yields and the male animals are slow or poor work animals
b) The cows of these breeds are average milk yielder and male animals are very useful for work
c) The male animals of this breed are good for work and Cows are poor milk yielder are their milk yield as an average is less than 500 kg per lactation
d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
193. Which of the following is Milch Breeds / Milk Breeds?
a) Tharparker
b) Krishna valley
c) Rathi
d) Red Sindhi
Ans. (d)
194. Which of the following is / are Draught Breeds of cattle?
a) Kangayam
b) Umblacherry
c) Amritmahal
d) All the above
Ans. (d)
195. Which of the following is not Dual Purpose Breed of cattle?
a) Deoni
b) Ongole
c) Hariana
d) Kankrej
Ans. (a)
196. The smallest unit of DNA capable of coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is
a) Muton
b) Repressor gene
c) Cistron
d) Recon
Ans. (c)
197. Optical isomers that are mirror images and non-superimposable are called
a) Di – isomers
b) Euantiomers
c) Diastereomers
d) Stereomers
Ans. (b)
198. Isolation of plasma proteins are done by
a) Salting out
b) Electrophoresis
c) Both a) and b)
d) None of these
Ans. (c)
199. After digestion amino acids are
a) absorbed into portal circulation
b) converted into glucose in the intestine
c) excreted to the extent of 50%
d) absorbed into lymph
Ans. (a)
200. Aromatic amino acids can be detected by
a) Somoghii reaction
b) Nelson reaction
c) Hopkins – Cole reaction
d) Xanthoproteic reaction
Ans. (d)
201. The dibbling is mostly used for sowing:
a) Cereal grains
b) Vegetables
c) Mustard
d) Groundnut
Ans. (b)
202. Which of the following is precision planter?
a) Seed drill
b) Broadcaster
c) Dibber
d) Doffan
Ans. (c)